Results

In the Chandra Kumar Case (1997), Supreme Court declared the restriction on the jurisdiction of the high courts as unconstitutional, holding that judicial review is a part of the basic structure of the Constitution.

Now aggrieved public servants cannot go to Supreme Court directly against an order of the CAT, without first going to the concerned high court.

The doctrine of judicial review originated and developed in the USA. It was originated in the famous case of Marbury versus Madison (1803) and by John Marshell, the then chief justice of the American Supreme Court. Indian Constitution has taken the feature of judicial review from the US Constitution. The power of judicial review is conferred to both the Supreme Court as well as High Courts. Under Article 13 of the Indian Constitution, the compulsion of judicial review was described in fundamental rights in Part III. It is stated that the State or the Union shall not make such rules that takes away or abridges the essential rights of the people. If any law made by the Parliament or the State Legislature contravenes the provisions of this Article, shall be void However, ambit of judicial review is not restricted to protect the rights enshrined in Part III only.  The review implies the power of courts to ensure that all laws passed by the legislatures are in compliance with the provisions of the Constitution.Judicial review is considered a basic structure of the constitution (Indira Gandhi vs Raj Narain Case 1975).Some Articles in the constitution supporting the process of judicial review are:

Article 13

Article 32 and 226

Article 251 and 254

Article 246

Article 245

Article 137

Article 142

Supreme Court In Waman Rao V/s Union of India case, 1981 re-examined the implications of the basic structure doctrine for Article 31-B. The court drew a line of demarcation on April 24th, 1973, which is the date of Keshavananda Bharati's decision. It held that Basic Structure should not be applied retrospectively to reopen the validity of any amendment to the constitution, which took place before 24-04-1973.  It meant all the amendments added to the 9th schedule before that date was valid. 

• In Common Cause Case, 2018, the Supreme Court recognised the ‘living will’ made by terminally-ill patients for passive euthanasia.

• The Apex Court said that advance directives for terminally-ill patients could be issued and executed by the next friend and relatives of such person after which a medical board would consider it.

• The Supreme Court recognised passive euthanasia in the Aruna Shanbaug case in 2011 by which it permitted withdrawal of life-sustaining treatment from patients who are not in a position to take an informed decision.

• In Aruna Shanbaug Case the Court said individuals had a right to die with dignity under Article 21.

A 5-judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court upheld the Delhi High Court judgment of 2010.

Justice Sanjiv Khanna from the majority judgment said as public interest demands accountability, judicial independence is crucial.  Delhi High Court in 2010 held that the office of the CJI was a public authority under the RTI Act and was covered by its provisions. Now the office of the CJI will entertain RTI applications.  Right to Information Act comes within the ambit of Article 19(1)(A) of the Constitution of India which ensures the fundamental right to Freedom of Speech and Expression. In recent times many RTIs are filed requesting the information relating to the appointment of Supreme Court judges, personal assets of the judges and their spouses etc., The bigger question is whether the demand for transparency in the Indian courts should be allowed to interfere with the privacy of the judges? The court in this regard held that Right to Information is not absolute but the restrictions may be applied in such situations where personal information is asked, which is not related to any public interest and would invade the privacy of a person. The sections 8-11 of the RTI Act signify the exemptions and conditions to access the information. The public authority may disclose the information if it is important to maintain public interest.

Supreme Court has invalidated the triple talaq practise by calling it arbitrary and unconstitutional in a 3-2 majority judgment.

What are the justifications of the majority judges?

• Three of the five judges have set aside instant talaq terming it as ‘manifestly arbitrary’ which makes it violative of Article 14 (Right to Equality).
• Social - A mere prevalence of the practise for over 1,400 years itself cannot make it valid.
• An individual's dignity and equality is placed at the mercy of their communities by this practise.
• Religious - It is noted that triple talaq is against the basic tenets of the Holy Koran.
• Shariat Act had in the past put an end to unholy, oppressive and discriminatory customs and usages in the Muslim community.
• So similarly Triple Talaq can also be invalidated.
• Legal - A section of the Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act of 1937 has already recognised triple talaq as a statutory right and not a fundamental right.
• This makes triple talaq outsie the ambit of Article 25.
• Hence it was made clear that instant talaq was no longer a personal law enjoying immunity under Article 25 and it comes under the ambit of Article 13 of the Constitution.
• Article 13 mandates that any law, framed before or after the Constitution, should not be violative of the fundamental rights.

•I.R. Coelho case (2007): Supreme Court ruled that there would not be blanket immunity from judicial review of laws included in the Ninth Schedule.

•The Court unanimously held that it was not permissible for the legislature to escape the scrutiny of the Basic Structure doctrine by finding manifestly cunning ways to get around it. 

•Each constitutional amendment must be evaluated on its own merits.

•When determining whether a law is damaging or destroying the basic structure, the 'effect and impact' test should be used.

•The Effect and Impact test means that the part of the Constitution being amended will not be considered when determining its validity; rather, the effects of the amendment on the Constitution will be a determining factor.

•All amendments to the Constitution made after April 24, 1973 must be tested to see if they are in accordance with the essential features of the Constitution as reflected in Article 21 read with Article 14 and Article 19.

•Judicial review is a fundamental component of the legal system, and no law is immune from it.

Explanation: All the statements are correct: Representation of People Act (1951) deals with the qualifications and disqualifications of Members of Parliament and legislative assembly. The RPA, 1951 lays down certain rules for disqualification of MPs and MLAs. The following criteria’s should be adhered to, else he/she will be disqualified under RPA, 1951. 
• He must not have been found guilty of certain election offences and corrupt practices 
• He must not have been convicted for any offence that results in imprisonment for two or more years. However, detention under preventive detention law is not disqualification. 
• He must not have failed to lodge an account of election expenses within stipulated time. 
• He must not have any interest in government contracts, works and services.
• He must not be a director or managing personnel in a company / organization in which government has at least 25% share. 
• He must not have been dismissed from government service due to corruption or disloyalty to state.
• He must not have been convicted for promoting enmity between groups.
• He must not have been punished for supporting social crimes such as untouchability, sati, dowry etc. 

Explanation: 

Special Powers of Rajya Sabha: The Upper House also has some special powers, such as: 
• Power to transfer a subject from the State List to Union List for a specified period (Article 249).
• To create additional All-India Services (Article 312). 
• To endorse Emergency under Article 352 for a limited period when the Lok Sabha remains dissolved. Statement 2 is incorrect - Article 249 of the constitution provides that Rajya Sabha by a resolution passed by 2/3 of its members present and voting i.e special majority, may authorize the Parliament to pass laws on a matter in the state list, in the national interest. ( Effective majority - 50% of the strength, strength is calculated by subtracting vacant seats from total strength). 

Explanation: 

Statement 1 and 2 are correct : 

•The Supreme Court is a Federal court, the highest court of appeal, the guarantor of the fundamental rights of the citizens and guardian of the Constitution.. The Constitution has made the following provisions to safeguard and ensure the independent and impartial functioning of the Supreme Court:
•Mode of appointment: Security of tenure ,Fixed service conditions ,Expenses charged on the consolidated fund of India ,Conduct of judges cannot be discussed ,Power to punish for its     contempt ,Freedom to appoint its staff, Its jurisdiction cannot be curtailed, Separation from Executive. 
Statement 3 is correct:

• Original Jurisdiction: As a Federal court, the Supreme Court decides disputes between different units of the Indian Federation. More elaborately, any dispute between: the Centre and one or more states; or the Centre and any state or states on one side and one or more states on the other; or between two or more states. 
-In the above federal disputes, the Supreme Court has exclusive original jurisdiction. Further, this jurisdiction of the Supreme Court does not extend to the following: 
• A dispute arising out of any pre-Constitution treaty, agreement, covenant, engagement, sanad or other similar instrument. 
• A dispute arising out of any treaty, agreement, etc.,which specifically provides that the said jurisdiction does not extent to such a dispute.
-Inter-state water disputes.
• Matters referred to the Finance Commission
• Adjustment of certain expenses and pensions between the Centre and the states. 
• Ordinary dispute of Commercial nature between the Centre and the states.
• Recovery of damages by a state against the Centre. 
Statement 4 is correct : 

• The constitution directs the state to take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services. This means the executive authorities should not possess the judicial powers. 

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect: 

Any changes to the fundamental rights require a constitutional amendment that should be passed by both the Houses of Parliament. The amendment bill should be passed by a special majority of Parliament. 
Statement 3 is Incorrect:

 Doctrine of Severability: This is a doctrine that protects the fundamental rights enshrined in the Constitution. It is also known as the Doctrine of Separability. It is mentioned in Article 13, according to which all laws that were enforced in India before the commencement of the Constitution, inconsistent with the provisions of fundamental rights shall to the extent of that inconsistency be void.  This implies that only the parts of the statute that is inconsistent shall be deemed void and not the whole statue. Only those provisions which are inconsistent with fundamental rights shall be void.
Statement 4 is incorrect: 

Doctrine of Eclipse: This doctrine states that any law that violates fundamental rights is not null or void ab initio, but is only non-enforceable, i.e., it is not dead but inactive. This implies that whenever that fundamental right (which was violated by the law) is struck down, the law becomes active again (is revived).  Another point to note is that the doctrine of eclipse applies only to pre-constitutional laws (laws that were enacted before the Constitution came into force) and not to post constitutional laws. This means that any post-constitutional law which is violative of a fundamental right is void ab initio.

Explanation: Part XVII of the Indian Constitution deals with Official Language act of 1968: Articles:(343- 351) 
Article 343- Official languages of the Union.
Article 345- Official languages or languages of states. 
Article 348- Languages to be used in the Supreme Court and in the High Courts. 
Article 351-Directive for development of the Hindi languages.

Explanation: Executive control over Parliament Type: Static Section: Indian Polity Explanation: Executive Functions (Control over the Executive): In the parliamentary form of government, the executive is responsible to the legislature. Hence, the Parliament exercises control over the executive by several measures. By a vote of no-confidence, the Parliament can remove the Cabinet (executive) out of power. It can reject a budget proposal or any other bill brought by the Cabinet. A motion of no confidence is passed to remove a government from office. The MPs (Members of Parliament) can ask questions to the ministers on their omissions and commissions. Any lapses on the part of the government can be exposed in the Parliament.  Adjournment Motion: Allowed only in the Lok Sabha, the chief objective of the adjournment motion is to draw the attention of the Parliament to any recent issue of urgent public interest. It is considered an extraordinary tool in Parliament as the normal business is affected.  Censure Motion: A censure motion is moved by the opposition party members in the House to strongly disapprove any policy of the government. It can be moved only in the Lok Sabha. Immediately after a censure motion is passed, the government has to seek the confidence of the House. Unlike in the case of the no-confidence motion, the Council of Ministers need not resign if the censure motion is passed. 
Cut Motion: A cut motion is used to oppose any demand in the financial bill brought by the government. 

Explanation:
Starred question (distinguished by an asterisk)- this requires an oral answer and hence supplementary questions can follow.
Unstarred question- this requires a written answer and hence, supplementary questions cannot follow. 
Short notice question is one that is asked by giving a notice of less than ten days. It is answered orally.

Explanation: Compulsory and Voluntary Provisions of 73rd Amendment Act: Compulsory Provisions:
1.Organization of Gram Sabha in a village or group of villages 
2. Establishment of panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels 
3. Direct elections to all seats in panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels 
4. Indirect elections to the post of chairperson of panchayats at the intermediate and district levels
5. 21 years to be the minimum age for contesting elections to panchayats 
6.Reservation of seats (both members and chairpersons) for SCs and STs in panchayats at all the three levels 
7. Reservation of one-third seats (both members and chairpersons) for women in panchayats at all the three levels 
8.Fixing tenure of five years for panchayats at all levels and holding fresh elections within six months in the event of supersession of any panchayat 
9.Establishment of a State Election Commission for conducting elections to the panchayats
10.Constitution of a State Finance Commission after every five years to review the financial position of the panchayats 
• Voluntary Provisions: 
1.Giving representation to members of the Parliament (both the Houses) and the state legislature (both the Houses) in the panchayats at different levels falling within their constituencies. 
2.Providing reservation of seats (both members and chairpersons) for backward classes in panchayats at any level. 
3.Granting powers and authority to the panchayats to enable them to function as institutions of self-government.
4.Devolution of powers and responsibilities upon panchayats to prepare plans for economic development and social justice; and to perform some or all of the 29 functions listed in the Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution. 
5.Granting financial powers to the panchayats, i.e. authorizing them to levy, collect and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls and fees.

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct : It is applicable to every establishment that employs five or more migrant workmen from other States; or if it had employed five or more such workmen on any day in the preceding 12 months. 
Statement 2 is incorrect: It is also applicable to contractors who employed a similar number of inter-State workmen. 
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Act would apply regardless of whether the five or more workmen were in addition to others employed in the establishment or by the contractors.

Explanation: The decisions can be taken by the governor’s discretion which is categorized into two parts: Constitutional and Situational 

Constitutional Discretion of Governor: The Governors of states can act at their constitutional discretion in the following instances:
When they have to reserve the bill for the consideration of the President of India, Governors can decide on their own without the advice of the Council of When he has to recommend for the President’s rule in the state, he can act at his own discretion.
When he is given an additional charge as the administrator of the Union Territory, he can take actions at his own discretion.
When he has to determine the amount payable by the Government of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram to an autonomous Tribal District Council as royalty accruing from licenses for mineral exploration .
When he calls upon the Chief Minister to seek information regarding administrative and legislative affairs 
Situational Discretion of the Governor: 
The Governors of states can act at their situational discretion in the following instances: 
When he has to appoint a Chief Minister after no party has a clear majority in the election or when the incumbent dies in the office.
When he dismisses the council of ministers on an inability to prove confidence in the state legislative assembly.
When he dissolves the state legislative assembly on time when it loses its majority.

Explanation: The Assertion(A) is false because Article 13 declares that all laws that are inconsistent with or in derogation of any of the fundamental rights shall be void. The Reason(R) is true independently as a statement and Article-32 and Article-226 can declare a law unconstitutional and invalid on the ground of contravention of any of the Fundamental Rights. The Assertion(A) i.e. Article-13 expressively provides for the doctrine of judicial review to the Supreme court and High court for safeguarding the fundamental rights.

Explanation: 
Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 371(A) states that no act of Parliament shall apply to the State of Nagaland in respect of the religious or social practices of the Nagas, its customary law and procedure, administration of civil and criminal justice involving decisions according to Naga customary law and ownership and transfer of land and its resources.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 371-E of the Constitution of India, empowers Parliament of India to provide for the establishment of a Central University in the State of Andhra Pradesh.
Statement 3 is incorrect : Article 371-C authorised the President of India to provide for the creation of a committee of the Manipur Legislative Assembly consisting of the members elected from the Hill areas of the State.

Explanation: All the above statements mentioned above in context to legal enforceability of DPSP are correct. The framers of the Constitution made the Directive Principles nonjusticiable and legally non-enforceable because: 
1. The country did not possess sufficient financial resources to implement them
2. The presence of vast diversity and backwardness in the country would stand in the way of their implementation. 
3. The newly born independent Indian State with its many preoccupations might be crushed under the burden unless it was free to decide the order, the time, the place and the mode of fulfilling them. The Constitution makers, therefore, taking a pragmatic view, refrained from giving teeth to these principles.

Explanation: The statement 2 mentioned above is false, unlike fundamental right, Fundamental duties are confined to citizens only and do not extend to foreigners. So, the option (B) is the correct answer. 
First statement is correct, usually fundamental duties are moral duties while others are civic duties. For instance, cherishing noble ideals of freedom struggle is a moral precept and respecting the Constitution, National Flag and National Anthem is a civic duty. Statement 3 and statement 4 are correct and form important characteristic of Fundamental duties.

Explanation: In the above question, the statement that Rights are claims of the citizen against the State is the only correct statement. Fundamental rights are not universal in nature and the state has the power to change it; however, they need to maintain the basic nature of the Fundamental rights and the court has rights to carry out the Judicial review of the same. Rights are not privileges nor they are ushered upon only on some selected citizens. There can be some exceptions to some backward classes on the basis of their social and economic situation. 

Explanation: 

Solicitor General is the second highest law officer in the country.  He is subordinate to the Attorney General of India, the highest law officer and works under him.  He also advises the government in legal matters. Solicitor general is appointed for period of three years by Appointment Committee of Cabinet chaired by Prime Minister. 
Note: The office and duties of Attorney General is created by Constitution under Article 76. While, Solicitor General and Additional Solicitor Generals’ office and duties are governed by Law Officers (Conditions of Service) Rules, 1987 and not by Constitution (thus they are statutory posts and not constitutional). Moreover, attorney generals has right to participate in the proceedings of Parliament, but cannot vote. Whereas, Solicitor General and Additional Solicitor Generals’ do not have these rights with respect to participation in parliament

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: It will work for effective development coordination of almost all the programmes of Central Government. 
Statement 2 is correct : The Chairperson of the DISHA should be a Member of Parliament (Lok Sabha) elected from the district, nominated by the Ministry of Rural Development. 
Statement 3 is correct : Statement 3 is correct : Ministry of Rural Development, Government of India may nominate up to 4 members as member of the committee from the following categories:
An eminent person of the district from social, academic or public fields having special knowledge or experience of socio-economic development in the region/district  An eminent person/office bearer of a civil society organization working in the district/region in the field of socio-economic development in the region/district  An eminent person in the senior citizen category (above the age of 60 years). Provided that, At least one of the above persons shall be a woman and; At least one of the above persons shall be from either a scheduled caste or a scheduled tribe category Provided further that continuance of these persons as member of the committee will be at the discretion of Ministry of Rural Development, Government of India.
One Member from a reputed NGO, to be nominated by the chairperson and the other Members of Parliament in the Committee  One representative each of SC, ST, and women to be nominated by the chairperson and the other Members of Parliament in the Committee . Lead Bank officer of the district :Senior Superintendent/ Superintendent of the Postal Department.

Explanation: Powers of the CM: 
As head of the council of ministers he recommends people to be appointed as ministers to the governor. He allocates and reshuffles portfolios amongst them.  He can ask the minister to resign or tell the governor to dismiss him. He supervises activities of all ministers. His resignation or death leads to dissolution of the council of ministers.  He communicates to the governor all matters related to administration of the state and proposed legislations. He furnishes information required by the governor relating to administration of the union or proposed legislations. He submits to the consideration of the council of ministers any matter on which decision has been taken by an individual minister but the CoM hasn’t considered it. He can advice governor to summon or prorogue the house sessions. He can advice dissolution of legislative assembly to the governor anytime. He announces government policies on the floor of the house. He is advisor of governor regarding appointments to various regulators and constitutional bodies of the union. 

Explanation: 
It is a reasonable restriction to the freedom of speech and expression under Article 19. For the concept of Contempt of Court, the Contempt of Court Act, 1971 was passed which dealt with such a concept.  Article 129 and 215 [‘courts of record’] of the Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and High Court respectively to punish people for their respective contempt. Section 10 of The Contempt of Courts Act of 1971 defines the power of the High Court to punish contempts of its subordinate courts. Court can take suo-motu cognizance of the contempt of court.  Power to punish for contempt of court under Articles 129 and 215 is not subject to Article 19(1)(a) [freedom of speech and expression]. Under Section 2(b) of the Contempt of Courts Act of 1971, civil contempt has been defined as wilful disobedience to any judgment, decree, direction, order, writ or other process of a court or wilful breach of an undertaking given to a court .Under Section 2(c) of the Contempt of Courts Act of 1971, criminal contempt has been defined as the of any matter or the doing of any other act whatsoever which: Scandalises or tends to scandalise, or lowers or tends to lower the authority of, any court, Prejudices, or interferes or tends to interfere with the due course of any judicial proceeding, Interferes or tends to interfere with, or obstructs or tends to obstruct, the administration of justice in any other manner. The Limitation period for actions of contempt has been discussed under Section 20 of the Contempt of Courts Act of 1971 and is a period of one year from the date on which the contempt is alleged to have been committed. 

Explanation: The 10th Schedule of the Indian Constitution (which talks about the anti-defection law) is designed to prevent political defections prompted by the lure of office or material benefits or other like considerations. The Anti-defection law was passed by Parliament in 1985 and reinforced in 2002. The 10th Schedule of the Indian Constitution popularly referred to as the ‘Anti-Defection Law’ was inserted by the 52nd Amendment (1985) to the Constitution. Hence statement 1 is wrong. ‘Defection’ has been defined as, “To abandon a position or association, often to join an opposing group”. The anti-defection law was enacted to ensure that a party member does not violate the mandate of the party and in case he does so, he will lose his membership of the House. The law applies to both Parliament and state assemblies. The Anti-Defection Law aims to prevent MPs from switching political parties for any personal motive. 10th Schedule – Provisions under Anti-Defection Law: Grounds for disqualification: 
• If an elected member gives up his membership of a political party voluntarily. 
• If he votes or abstains from voting in the House, contrary to any direction issued by his political party.
• If any member who is independently elected joins any party. 
• If any nominated member joins any political party after the end of 6 months. 
• The decision on disqualification questions on the ground of defection is referred to the Speaker or the Chairman of the House, and his/her decision is final. 
• All proceedings in relation to disqualification under this Schedule are considered to be proceedings in Parliament or the Legislature of a state as is the case. Exceptions under the Anti Defection Law: 
• In the situation where two-thirds of the legislators of a political party decide to merge into another party, neither the members who decide to join nor the ones who stay with the original party will face disqualification. 
• Any person elected as chairman or speaker can resign from his party, and rejoin the party if he demits that post. 
• Earlier, the law allowed parties to be split, but at present, this has been outlawed. Deciding Authority: Any question regarding disqualification arising out of defection is to be decided by the presiding officer of the House. Hence statement 2 is wrong. 

Explanation: Fiscal Deficit is the difference between the total income of the government (total taxes and non-debt capital receipts) and its total expenditure. The extent of fiscal deficit is an indication of how far the government is spending beyond its means. Fiscal deficit indicates the total borrowing requirements of the government.

Explanation: All the statements are incorrect IIP data is compiled and published by CSO every month. CSO or Central Statistical Organisation operates under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI). The CSO uses secondary data to reach the monthly IIP number. The data is sourced from various agencies in different ministries or departments of the government. IIP is an index that tracks manufacturing activity in different sectors of an economy. The IIP number measures the industrial production for the period under review, usually a month, as against the reference period. IIP is a key economic indicator of the manufacturing sector of the economy. There is a lag of six weeks in the publication of the IIP index data after the reference month ends. IIP index is currently calculated using 2011-2012 as the base year. 

Explanation: All the statements are correct. CPI measures the change in price of goods and services of consumers (Consumer centric) while WPI measures the change in price of goods in wholesale market (Producer centric), hence CPI is a better indicator than WPI in assessing the impact of inflation on households WPI doesn’t take services sector and unorganized manufacturing sector into account. Prices used for its compilation do not include indirect taxes in order to remove impact of fiscal policy. While earlier the Reserve Bank of India used WPI inflation to manage monetary policy expectations, it is now the CPI inflation which is largely taken into account.

Explanation: Capital receipts includes:
1.Treasury Bills: Borrowings from RBI and other commercial banks and FIs through treasury bills. 
2.Loans received from foreign government and international organization.
3.Recoveries of loans granted by central government. 
4.Small savings in PO savings account, National Saving Certificate, etc.
5.Provident Fund 
6.PSU disinvestment (receipts from sale pf share in Public Sector Undertakings) While Interest receipts on loans given by central government comes under revenue receipts and cash grants-in-aid received from foreign countries comes under revenue receipts. So 4 and 5 are wrong. 

Explanation: Indirect tax affects the public uniformly among various classes which helps in spreading the inequality. Priority sector lending, Guarantee of Social Security & Direct Benefit Transfer directly help the farmers, disadvantaged groups & economically weaker section to grow financially & providing opportunities to strengthen further. Investing in women as important workers is necessary and urgent today to reduce inequality and increase nations’ gross domestic product (GDP).  As a statement by earlier IMF Chief Christine Lagarde recently if women’s participation in the workforce matched men’s, Japan could grow at 9 per cent per annum and India at 27 per cent.  Focusing in further on India, McKinsey reported in August 2016 that women contribute only 17 per cent of India’s GDP, and estimates that India could add $700 billion to its GDP in 2025 by closing this gap. 

Explanation: Tax expenditure are concessions and exemptions provided to the tax payers by the government. These concessions are aimed to promote certain type of activities like R&D, public welfare etc. Hence, though these are exemptions from paying taxes they are indirectly some sort of expenditure (to the tune of the tax concessions made to the tax payer) made by the government to realize the given objective. Hence the tax concessions and deductions are termed as tax expenditure. In the central government’s budget, there are different items that are exempted from paying taxes including- deductions, exemptions, rebates, deferrals, special tax rates and credits. Exemptions allowed for interest payment and principal repayment for housing loans is an example of tax expenditure.

Explanation: Fiscal stimulus, such as tax cuts or spending increases, can raise output and incomes in the short run by increasing overall demand. To have the greatest impact with the least long-run cost, the stimulus should be timely, temporary, and targeted. A fiscal stimulus entails the Government spending more from its own coffers or slashing tax rates to put more money in the hands of consumers. Some examples are: Increased funding under the MGNREGA, collateral free loan for MSME as done during pandemic this year.

Explanation: Accordingly, the share of non-sovereign debt in total external debt increased from 41 per cent as at end-March1991, to 52 per cent as at-end March 2000 and further to 82 per cent as at end-March 2020.  India’s External debt to GDP ratio has not constantly decreased since 1991. There are years where the ratio were increased also. It is fluctuating. Hence Statement 2 is wrong. 

Explanation: Cost of production is an important factor that goes as an input in determination of MSP, but it is certainly not the only factor that determines MSP. While recommending price policy of various commodities under its mandate, the Commission keeps in mind the various Terms of Reference (ToR) given to CACP in 2009. Accordingly, it analyses; 1) demand and supply; 2) cost of production; 3) price trends in the market, both domestic and international; 4) inter-crop price parity; 5) terms of trade between agriculture and non-agriculture; 6) a minimum of 50 percent as the margin over cost of production; and 7) likely implications of MSP on consumers of that product. As of now, CACP recommends MSPs of 23 commodities, which comprise 7 cereals (paddy, wheat, maize, sorghum, pearl millet, barley and ragi), 5 pulses (gram, tur, moong, urad, lentil), 7 oilseeds (groundnut, rapeseed-mustard, soyabean, seasmum, sunflower, safflower, nigerseed), and 4 commercial crops (copra, sugarcane, cotton and raw jute). 

Explanation: Both the statements are wrong. Participatory Notes or P-Notes (PNs) are financial instruments issued by a registered foreign institutional investor (FII) to an overseas investor who wishes to invest in Indian stock markets without registering themselves with the market regulator, the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). P-Notes are Offshore Derivative Investments (ODIs) with equity shares or debt securities as underlying assets. Brokers and Foreign institutional investors (FIIs) must register with the Securities and Exchange Board of India. Participatory notes are popular investments due to the investor remaining anonymous.

Explanation: India is one of the largest importers of oil in the world. It imports nearly 80% of its total oil needs. A fall in price would drive down the value of its imports. If the crude oil prices continue to remain low, India could see its overall import bill come down Low oil prices will help India control its current account deficit and make the rupee stronger. However, such an unprecedented fall in crude oil prices is not a healthy sign, and reflects global markets’ nervousness amid still-evolving impact of the pandemic on global demand and activity, Further, patchy risk sentiments would weigh on foreign flows in India. In another blow, India’s inward remittances from middle-eastern and other oil countries too may take a hit. 

Explanation: Both the statements are correct. Economies that have both a fiscal deficit and a current account deficit are often referred to as having “twin deficits.” Higher twin deficit is inherently destabilizing and was the primary reason why India faced a currency crisis back in 1991. Higher current account deficit means higher demand for foreign currency, which results in depreciation of the domestic currency. It also discourages capital inflow and leads to capital flight from the country. Higher fiscal deficit, apart from affecting savings and growth, affects business confidence. They often reinforce each other i.e.; high fiscal deficit leads to higher CAD and vice versa.

Explanation: NITI Aayog has presented a draft policy that allows individuals to “seamlessly and securely access their data and share it with third party institutions.” The new draft policy, titled ‘Data Empowerment And Protection Architecture’ (DEPA) argues “India needs a paradigm shift in personal data management” and proposes a consent framework that would allow individuals and small businesses to “access, control and share personal data” with third party institutions. It will enable organizations to share the personal data of an individual with one another through the concept of “consent managers” - that will manage people’s consent for data sharing.

Explanation: The Assertion is wrong because the Quantum Teleportation technique is for transferring information rather than physical objects. The statement given as Reason is correct which is a fact. Quantum teleportation is a technique for transferring quantum information from a sender at one location to a receiver some distance away. While teleportation is commonly portrayed in science fiction as a means to transfer physical objects from one location to the next, quantum teleportation only transfers quantum information. An important note is that the sender knows neither the location of the recipient nor the quantum state that will be transferred. Experimental determinations of quantum teleportation have been made in information content - including photons, atoms, electrons, and superconducting circuits - as well as distance with 1,400 km (870 mi) being the longest distance of successful teleportation by the group of Jian Wei Pan using the Micius satellite for space-based quantum teleportation. 

Explanation: Indian Railways has come up with a “Zero-based Time table” with the help of IIT Mumbai to scientifically schedule the trains which will allow more room for running passenger and goods trains. This will have the major benefit on long distance trains where the time will be reduced up to 6 hours. This will also lead to scrapping of some unwarranted stoppages leading to further speed improvement. The name “Zero-based Time table” came from the fact that the schedule of a new train will be made assuming that it is the only train running on the desired route. It has nothing to do with starting time that is zero hours from the station. Hence statement 3 is wrong. 

Explanation: All the statements given above are true.. This is necessary to ensure its national security and sovereignty. The draft Policy is in line with the motto of Atma-Nirbhar Bharat by including more private players in satellite building, launches and other service providers. The inclusion of private players increases the risk of foul play also, so they are made liable for the same. Through this policy one of the crux is to have a responsive regulatory framework. They also meant for standardization of granting the authentication for acquiring the communication rights in the country for indigenous entities only. 

Explanation: “Aquaponics” is a new facility developed by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC), Mohali. It is a combination of both aquaculture and hydroponics. As Hydroponics is the cultivation of plants without using soil. In Aquaponics, Fish waste from the aquaculture portion of the system is broken down by bacteria into dissolved nutrients that plants utilize to grow in a hydroponic unit. It doesn’t utilize any chemical to facilitate growth of plants. This can become an excellent source for producing protein rich foods in terms of fish and plants. 

Explanation: Statement 3 is wrong; 

Indian is not the first country to set a mission to Venus. The first program was named as Venera, which was a series of space probes developed by the Soviet Union between 1961 and 1984 to gather information about the planet Venus. India has named its maiden Venus mission as “Shukrayaan-I”. This will study the surface and atmosphere of Venus. ISRO and CNES are collaborating for jointly developing autonomous navigation. They are also planning to utilize balloons as learnt from VEGA mission to have a better study of the atmosphere. The mission is going to be launched somewhere around 2024. Meanwhile NASA is also launching a mission called VERITAS to study the geology of Venus. 

Explanation: Only statements 1 and 2 are correct. 

Precision agriculture is an approach to farming that employs data sensors, connected devices, remote control tools, and other advanced technologies to give farmers more control over the field and the team. Precision agriculture seeks to use new technologies to increase crop yields and profitability while lowering the levels of traditional inputs needed to grow crops (land, water, fertilizer, herbicides and insecticides). Uttar Pradesh and Bihar are the poorer states in terms of precision agriculture. Rajasthan, Punjab and Gujarat are one of the forerunners. Drip irrigation and fogging also comes under Precision Irrigation technique. 

Explanation: Except statement 4 all the statements in connection to hyperloop are correct. The Hyperloop is a proposed mode of passenger and freight transportation, first used to describe an open-source vactrain design released by a joint team from Tesla and SpaceX. In India virgin hyperloop is trying to connect Pune to Mumbai. Recently they have demonstrated the facility with live traffic. The top speed for a passenger vehicle or light cargo will be 670 miles per hour or 1080 kilometer per hour. That is about 3 times faster than high-speed rail and 10-15 times faster than traditional rail. It also brings all the hazards of the speed of planes and combines it with the hazard of traveling within a few cm of the earth. Any Hyperloop accident will result in the instant death of everyone in the capsule and almost everyone in the entire Hyperloop with the explosive decompression." 

Explanation: All the given statements in connection to Patent Polling is correct. According to the World Intellectual Property Organisation (WIPO), patent pools are defined as an agreement made between two or more patent holders for licensing their patents to one another or any third party for the purpose of sharing their intellectual property rights. In recent times Costa Rica is the first country to come in open to support patent pooling to facilitate countries with limited economic resources to get access to vaccines for COVID-19. Sewing Machine is the first popular example which results because of patent pooling in 1856. In COVID-19 various steps have been taken by international agencies under patent pooling- C-TAP and GISAID are one of them. C-TAP is related to sharing of COVID-19 health technology related knowledge, intellectual property and data. While GISAID promotes the rapid sharing of data from all influenza viruses and the coronavirus causing COVID-19.

Explanation: In connection to COVID-19 vaccine preparation, all the statements mentioned above are wrong. There are basically 6 types of vaccines i.e. Live attenuated type, Inactivated, Protein subunit, Virus like particles, DNA and RNA and Viral Vector. For COVID-19 the major research is going on with Protein subunit kind of vaccine. The above all type of vaccines can have side effects which need a thorough check-up. There are basically 4 stages in the vaccine development life cycle i.e. pre-clinical trial, clinical trial, approval by regulator and production. In the clinical trial phase, there are three sub-phases i.e. safety trial, large group trial and efficacy trial

Explanation: All the statements mentioned above are correct. Digital cryptography system is basically governed by two type of systems i.e. Public key and Private key based cryptography. RSA algorithm which is a public key-based cryptography system (used for digital signature) is based on a large number prime factorization problem. So, it is correct that they work on some unsolvable mathematics problem. The advancement of Quantum systems and algorithms possesses a threat for such a system. For e.g. Shor Algorithm in quantum computers can find the prime factors of large numbers in very less time as compared to classical systems. 

Explanation: Only Statements 1 and 4 are correct. 

“IN-SPACe” programme is launched by Indian Government to promote private participation in space research. India has created its name by carrying out various missions without fail with a fraction of cost of other world reputed agencies, So Indian National Space Promotion and Authorization Centre (IN-SPACe) is to boost private sector participation in the entire range of space activities including satellite manufacturing. New Space India Limited (NSIL) is a similar agency which takes care of the commercial side of ISRO. It’s not the nodal agency but it will work with IN-SPACe programme to promote private participation. ISRO will still maintain control in terms of safety and design over these bodies. 

Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 in connection to “Joint Lunar Polar exploration” are wrong. 

ISRO and JAXA (space agency of JAPAN) are trying to have a joint lunar mission after 2023 using a H3 rocket. The landing point will be the south pole region of the moon. The major aim of the mission is to work on water detectors, science instruments and environment measuring instruments for low-gravity celestial bodies like the moon. In this mission JAXA will be building landers and rovers and ISRO will be designing the overall lander system.

Explanation: Statements 1 and 4 are wrong in context of application of Nano Technologies in agriculture. There is no advancement in application of Nano Technologies to arrest the issues of stubble burning which is a major cause of pollution in NCR region. Department of Science and Technology (DST) is the nodal agency for Nano-Technologies in India. There are guidelines regarding Sensors made of nanoparticles which come in direct contact with food and crops that it is safe if it comes in contact with human beings. There are plenty of useful applications in agriculture for e.g. it can reduce the nutrient run-off, increase productivity and promote sustainable agriculture practices. 

Explanation: Statements 1 is correct: 5G is the 5th generation mobile network technology that is transmitted over non ionising radio waves. Non-ionizing radiation is the term given to radiation in the part of the electromagnetic spectrum where there is insufficient energy to cause ionization. It includes electric and magnetic fields, radio waves, microwaves, infrared, ultraviolet, and visible radiation.
Statement 2 is incorrect: 5G is more energy efficient compared to all previous technologies. To transmit the same quantity of data 5G requires less energy than 4G. 
Statement 3 is correct: 5G offers an extremely low latency rate, the delay between sending and receiving information. From 200 millisecond for 4G to 1 millisecond for 5G. The average reaction time for humans to a visual stimulus is 250 millisecond. 5G can provide an overall more uniform user experience so that the data rates stay consistently high—even when users are moving around.

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: The term “Edge computing” refers to computing as a distributed paradigm. It brings data storage and compute power closer to the device or data source where it’s most needed. Information is not processed on the cloud filtered through distant data centers; instead, the cloud comes to you. This distribution eliminates lag-time and saves bandwidth. Edge Computing is regarded as ideal for operations with extreme latency concerns. Thus, medium scale companies that have budget limitations can use edge computing to save financial resources. 
Statement 2 is incorrect: Cloud computing refers to the use of various services such as software development platforms, storage, servers, and other software through internet connectivity. Cloud Computing is more suitable for projects and organizations which deal with massive data storage.

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: A fuel cell is like a battery that generates electricity from an electrochemical reaction. It uses a source of hydrogen as a fuel but involves no combustion. 
Statement 2 is correct: With the help of oxygen present in the air, oxidation of hydrogen atoms occurs and in the process electrons are released which flow through an external circuit as an electric current. The by product is only heat and water. 
Statement 3 is incorrect: The advantages of fuel cells over the incumbent technologies are numerous, for example, high energy efficiency, extremely low pollutant emissions, low noise levels, and modularity. However, the key problem limiting the significant commercial uptake of fuel cells is cost, and it is cost reduction, together with the need to demonstrate high levels of reliability and durability, that are the primary concerns of fuel cell developers today. 

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: A scramjet (supersonic-combustion ramjet) is a ramjet engine in which the airflow through the engine remains supersonic, or greater than the speed of sound.
Statement 2 is correct: Scramjet powered vehicles are envisioned to operate at speeds up to at least Mach 15. A scramjet engine is an improvement over the ramjet engine. Uniqueness about the scramjet technology is that it draws oxygen from the air when the rocket travels through the atmosphere. Ordinary rockets do the same. They also draw the oxygen from air but they use compressor to draw in air, compress and ignite to burn the fuel. the scramjet’s heating and compression is done by movement of rocket itself as it is moving at supersonic speed. Thus, it is known as Supersonic Combustion Ramjet, or Scramjet. 
• ADVANTAGES OF SCRAMJET ENGINE: 
• Does not have to carry oxygen tank. 
• No rotating parts makes it easier to manufacture. 
• Less weight and simple design. 
• As the hydrogen is used as a propellant and combustion is carried out at supersonic velocity with the help of oxygen from the atmosphere. (Statement 3 is correct) 
• As a result of that, steam (H2O) is being exhaust gas which is eco-friendly in nature. Ramjet Engines: A ramjet operates by combustion of fuel in a stream of air compressed by the forward speed of the aircraft itself, as opposed to a normal jet engine, in which the compressor section (the fan blades) compresses the air. The air flow through a ramjet engine is subsonic, or less than the speed of sound. Ramjet propelled vehicles operate from about Mach 3 to Mach 6.

Explanation: Rig veda, Yajurveda and Samaveda are called Vedatrayi or simply Trayi or Veda Trayi. 

Explanation: The Varnas have been known from ring Veda since a hymn in the rig Veda portrays the Brahmin (priest), the Kshatriya (noble), the Vaishya (commoner) and the Shudra (servant) issued forth at creation from the mouth, arms, thighs and the feet of the primeval person (Purusha). Although the literal meaning of the word varna is colour of class (in Sanskrit).

Explanation: The correctly matched list is as follows-
Atharvaveda – Medicine Rig Veda - God Grace Yajurveda - Sacrifice process Samaveda - Music 

Explanation: ‘Ashtapradhan’ was a council of eight ministers constituted by Shivaji in Maratha administration. The eight prominent officials of Marathas were known as Ashta Pradhan. They were as follows: 
• Peshva (Prime Minister) 
• Amatya or Mazumdar (Finance Minister) 
• Waqia-Navis (like a home minister) 
• Samant or Dabir (dealing with the outsiders) 
• Sachiv (The official correspondence) 
• Pandit Rao (The official religious officer) Sar-i-nabuat (army affairs)
• Nyayadhish (judiciary).

Explanation: Saranzami system was related to land revenue in Maratha period. The land under given Saranzami system was provided for livelihood of Maratha Jagirdar during Maratha period.

Explanation: 
The term imperial preference was applied to the Special privileges on British Imports in India which ultimately resulted in monopoly of british goods in India due to which Indian Goods suffered a lot. 

Explanation: Lal Bal Pal was a triumvirate of assertive nationalists in British-ruled India in the early 20th century, from 1906 to 1918. They advocated the Swadeshi movement involving the boycott of all imported items and the use of Indian-made goods in 1907 during the anti-Partition agitation in Bengal which began in 1905. 

Explanation: About 45 kms from Imphal is a small town - Moirang which recorded much action in regard to India’s freedom struggle. Indian National Army Museum in Moirang is where the tricolour was first unhurled on Indian soil ever on April 14, 1944. Helmed by Subhash Chandra Bose, this also happens to be the place where INA formed the first provisional government of Free India (Azad Hind).

Explanation: Subhas Chandra Bose chose three Urdu words as the motto for his Indian National Army: ittehad, itmad, qurbani, or unity, confidence, sacrifice.

Explanation: Hasrat Mohani, was an Indian activist, freedom Fighter in the Indian independence movement and a noted poet of the Urdu language. He coined the notable slogan Inquilab Zindabad (translation of "Long live the revolution!") in 1921 Together with Swami Kumaranand, he is regarded as the first person to demand complete independence for India in 1921 at the Ahmedabad Session of the Indian National Congress. 

Explanation: Statement 2 and 3 are correct.
The Indigo revolt was a peasant movement and subsequent uprising of indigo farmers against the indigo planters. Hindu and Muslim peasants came together to raise their voices.
It was organized as funds were raised to fight court cases. Christian missionaries also supported peasants in this cause. 

Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct. Gandhi condemned the violence and Patel persuaded the Naval ratings to surrender.  To Patel the preferences were clear: "discipline in the Army cannot be tampered with .... We will want Army even in free India"
Statement 2 and 3 are correct. Mutineers were influenced and inspired by the INA Trials Cabinet Mission Plan( May 1946) was followed by RIN Mutiny(Feb 1946) . 

Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct. Barnaparichay is Bengali primer written by Vidyasagar. It is to learn Bengali language correctly. He also rationalized and simplified the Bengali alphabet and type.
Statement 2 is not correct. Vidyasagar was influenced by western science and rationalism. The method of teaching, conformed entirely to that of an English institution with a clearly defined syllabus and working hours. 
Statement 3 is correct. Influenced by English rationalism, Sanskrit College, contributed to the ‘anglicization’ of Sanskrit studies.

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Jyotirao Phule set up his Satyashodhak Samaj (Truth-Seekers Society) in 1873, he had become convinced that Brahman monopoly was solely responsible for the predicament of Sudra and Atisudra castes. It spoke about the inherent contradiction. 
Statement 2 is not correct. Jyotirao Phule upturned the Aryan invasion theory back on the elite. The strength and virtues attribute to aryans were attributed to lower castes by him. 
Statement 3 is correct. He coined the term “Dalit” and his writings and activism established a historical identity for Dalits. 

Explanation: Statement 1 and 2 are correct. 
• Tipu Sultan had established a robust system based on detailed survey and classification of land. 
• Thomas Munro and Alexander Read could see that the "mercantilist state” that Tipu Sultan was trying to establish, represented the same kind of hegemonic ambition as those of the Company. 
Statement 3 is incorrect. Tipu Sultan forbade any dealings with English traders and declared an embargo on Malabar coast against British. 

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: When air rises, moist air cools at a lower rate than dry air. That is, for the same upwards vertical movement and starting temperature, a parcel of moist air will be warmer than a parcel of dry air. This is because of the condensation of water vapor in the air parcel due to expansion cooling. 
Statement 2 is incorrect: Cool, dry air is very stable and resists vertical movement, which leads to good and generally clear weather. The greatest instability occurs when the air is moist and warm, as it is in the tropical regions in the summer. Typically, thunderstorms appear on a daily basis in these regions due to the instability of the surrounding air. 

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Fog is defined as a concentrated suspension of very small water droplets causing the ground level visibility of less than 1000 meters. Fog is a cloud which forms at ground level. For the formation of fog:
(i)    There must be sufficient moisture in the air. (ii) There must be clear sky to permit free terrestrial radiation. (iii) The wind must be light (iv) The air must be cooled below dew point 
Statement 2 is correct: Fog is formed by the condensation of water vapour on condensation nuclei that are always present in natural air. Aerosols provide the condensation nuclei, so that fogs tend to occur more frequently in urban areas.
Statement 3 is correct: Arctic sea smoke (frost smoke) is the fog that appears when very cold air from the Arctic ice or frozen-land regions comes over the warmer water of open parts of the Arctic Ocean. 
The fog is usually fairly shallow, wispy, and smoke-like. This is a common occurrence in coastal seas around cold land masses (e.g. Labrador, Greenland, and Norway). Similar steam fogs may be seen in winter over the open water of rivers when the air is 10°C or more colder than the water.

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: National Centre for Seismology (NCS) has started a geophysical survey over the Delhi region for accurate assessment of Seismic hazards. Magneto telluric (MT) is a geophysical method which uses natural time variation of the Earth’s magnetic field and electric fields to understand geological structures and processes. 
Statement 2 is correct: Measurements are being conducted over three major seismic faults: Mahendragarh Dehradun fault, Sohna fault and Mathura fault. These measurements ascertain the presence of fluid , which generally enhances the possibility of triggering of earthquakes. 
Statement 3 is incorrect: National Centre for Seismology is conducting an MT survey over Delhi region. NCS under the Ministry of Earth Sciences is the nodal agency for monitoring earthquakes in the country. 

Explanation:Statement 1 is incorrect: Recently massive fire broke out in the Dzukou valley region which lies between Nagaland and Manipur. It is home to Blyth’s Tragopan, Nagaland’s State Bird. 
Statement 2 is correct: Deepor Beel is a freshwater lake and an important riverine wetlands in Brahmaputra valley of Lower Assam.Its Assam’s only ramsar site and Important Bird Area by Birdlife International. 
Statement 3 is incorrect: More than 750 birds have been found dead under mysterious circumstances at the Pong Dam lake in recent days. It is a Ramsar site constructed on the river Beas in the wetlands of shivalik hills of kangra district of Himachal Pradesh. 

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: Ken Betwa Link is one of the 16 links under the Peninsular Component of National Perspective Plan (NPP) for Water Resource Development. 
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Project proposes to divert the surplus waters of river Ken to river Betwa for meeting water requirements in the water deficit Betwa basin. 
Statement 3 is correct: Both Ken and Betwa right bank are tributaries of River Yamuna. Ken originates from Mamar Hills of katni district (MP). Betwa rises in the vindhya range near Hoshangabad (MP). 

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Under Disaster Management (DM) Act, 2005 , National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF) at National level and State Disaster Response Fund at state level are formed to meet the rescue and relief expenditure during any notified disaster. 
Statement 2 is correct: In 2018, Central Government enhanced its contribution to 90% of SDRF allocation and all states will contribute 10% to SDRF. The annual Central contribution is released in two equal instalments as per the recommendation of the Finance Commission. SDRF shall be used only for meeting the expenditure for providing immediate relief to the victims.
Statement 3 is correct: Disasters covered under SDRF: Cyclone, drought, earthquake, fire, flood, tsunami, hailstorm, landslide, avalanche, cloudburst, pest attack, frost and cold waves. NDRF supplements SDRF of a State, in case of a disaster of severe nature, provided adequate funds are not available in SDRF. A State Government may use up to 10 percent of the funds available under the SDRF for ‘disasters’ within the local context in the State and which are not included in the notified list of disasters of the Ministry of Home Affairs
Statement 4 is correct: The financial assistance from SDRF/NDRF is for providing immediate relief and is not compensation for loss/damage to properties /crops. For projects exclusively for the purpose of mitigation, i.e, measures aimed at reducing the risk, impact or effect of a disaster or threatening disaster situation a separate fund called National Disaster Mitigation Fund has to be constituted. 

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: An aurora is a natural phenomenon which is characterised by a display of a natural-coloured (green, red, yellow or white) light in the sky. It is a light show which is caused when electrically-charged particles from the sun collide with particles from gases such as oxygen and nitrogen present in the Earth’s atmosphere. 
Statement 2 is correct: In the northern part of our globe, the polar lights are called aurora borealis or Northern Lights and are seen from the US (Alaska), Canada, Iceland, Greenland, Norway, Sweden and Finland.  In the south, they are called aurora australis or southern lights and are visible from high latitudes in Antarctica, Chile, Argentina, New Zealand and Australia. 
Statement 3 is incorrect: An aurora is seen from the Earth’s high latitude regions (called the auroral oval) and is active all year round. Generally, the auroral oval is usually witnessed far up in the Polar Regions or the high latitude regions of Europe, like in Norway.But occasionally, the oval expands, and the lights become visible at lower latitudes. This happens during periods of high solar activity, such as the arrival of solar storms. 

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Polar Vortex are large areas of low pressure and cold air surrounding earth’s north and south pole. It is counterclockwise in NH and clockwise in SH. Boundary of Polar vortex shrinks in summer towards ploewards and expands & become less stable in winter sending cold air southwards.
Statement 2 is correct: The “breaking off” of a part of the vortex occurs when there is a lack of a strong low-pressure system, resulting in jetstream losing the hold to keep it in line, and becoming wavy. So a wave of cold air will be pushed down south. This is called a polar vortex event. This polar vortex event brings sub zero temperatures in the tropical areas as south as Florida. 
Statement 3 is incorrect: Weak polar vortex conditions happening now more frequently due to:  GHG Emissions leading to melting of ice and reduce albedo. Rapid Arctic Warming diminishing the temperature and pressure difference between Arctic and mid latitudes weakening the jet streams.  Sudden stratospheric warming.

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Led by the African Union, the initiative aims to transform the lives of millions of people by creating a mosaic of green and productive landscapes across North Africa. GGW is an African led initiative which aims to restore the degraded landscape of the SAHELl, one of the most impoverished regions extending from Senegal in the west to Djibouti in the east.
Statement 2 is correct: It aims to grow an 8000 kms long and 15 kms wide mosaic of trees, grasslands, vegetation and plants. Once completed the GGW will be the largest living structure on the Earth, 3 times the size of the Great Barrier reef. 
Statement 3 is correct: GGW will also contribute to Goal 15 of UN SDGs. UN Convention to Combat Desertification is a key partner in the Initiative. 

Explanation:

 Statement 1 is correct: Seaweeds are photosynthetic algae.  They are primitive plants and roots, stems and leaves are absent in seaweed. They are macrophytic algae which mean they live in water or moist land surfaces. They grow in the shallow waters in the tidal zone. Seaweeds exhibit highest photosynthesis efficiency due to moist conditions. As a result they contribute to about 50% of all photosynthesis in the world.  Red and Green seaweeds are found in subtropical and tropical waters.  Brown seaweeds are common in cooler, temperate waters.
Statement 2 is correct: Seaweeds are used as food, renewable source of energy, pharmaceuticals, cosmetics, textiles, fertilizers. Agar-agar o Made of red algae o Used as food additive as a thickener, 
Statement 3 is incorrect: According to the Ministry of Fisheries, India has around 60 “commercially important” species, but only a few—Kappphycus, Sargassum, Gracilaria and Gelediella—are being exploited, on a small scale. According to some estimates, the world produces about 33 million tons of seaweed, half of it coming from China and most of the rest from Indonesia and Philippines; India produces only about 20,000 tons. In contrast, the country’s potential has been estimated at a million tons, a fourth of which in Tamil Nadu alone. Seaweed Cultivation Potential in India:

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Dryland Agriculture refers to growing crops entirely under rainfed conditions. (without irrigation) 
Based on the amount of rainfall received, dryland agriculture can be grouped into three categories: Dry Farming: Cultivation of crops in areas where rainfall is less than 750 mm per annum 2. Dryland Farming: Cultivation of crops in areas receiving rainfall above 750 mm 3. Rainfed Farming: Cultivation of crops in regions receiving more than 1,150 mm.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Rainfed farming and dryland farming are often used interchangeably, but this is a serious error. They both exclude irrigation, but beyond that, they can differ significantly. Dryland farming is a special case of rainfed agriculture practiced in arid and semiarid regions in which annual precipitation is about 20–35% of potential evapotranspiration .
Statement 3 is incorrect: Dryland areas in India: Rajasthan, Saurashtra region of Gujarat, Marathwada, and Vidarbha region of Maharashtra, Bundelkhand, most part of northern and central Indian, Deccan plateau and rain shadow zone of Western Ghats. Soils of the drylands are not only dry but also deficient in macronutrients like nitrogen and phosphorus. Thus in other words drylands are not only thirsty but they are hungry too.

Explanation:

 Statement 1 is correct: The UN Global Climate Action Awards are spearheaded by the Momentum for Change initiative at UN Climate Change. The projects are recognised as innovative solutions that not only address climate change but also help drive progress on many other sustainable development goals. 

Statement 3 is correct: GHE is one of the world’s first organisations using tourism and technology to bring solar energy to remote communities as recognized by the World Travel and Tourism Council (WTTC) and the United Nations World Tourism Organisation (UNWTO). GHE conducts “Impact Expeditions” to remote Himalayan villages and uses a portion of the expedition fee to fund the capital cost of the hardware, transportation, installation and training of village-scale solar micro-grids. The micro-grid infrastructure set up by GHE is owned and operated by the community. 

Explanation:

 Statement 1 is correct: Flash Floods: These are sudden surges in water levels during or following an intense spell of rain. These are highly localised events of short duration with a very high peak and usually have less than six hours between the occurrence of the rainfall and peak flood.  The flood situation worsens in the presence of choked drainage lines or encroachments obstructing the natural flow of water. 
Statement 2 is correct: Recently, the India Meteorological Department (IMD) has launched the South Asian Flash Flood Guidance System (FFGS), which is aimed at helping disaster management teams and governments make timely evacuation plans ahead of the actual event of flooding.
Statement 3 is correct: South Asian Flash Flood Guidance System has been developed by US-based Hydrologic Research Centre after the World Meteorological Organisation (WMO) and few South Asian countries put forth their views and the urgent need for such a warning system.
Statement 4 is incorrect: A dedicated FFGS centre will be established in New Delhi, where weather modelling and analysis of rainfall data observations from member countries will be done. 

Explanation: 
Statement 1 is correct: The Walker Circulation comprises east–west atmospheric circulation cells along the equatorial belt. The most dominant component is the Pacific branch, which consists of easterly winds at the lower troposphere, westerly winds at the upper troposphere, rising motion over the western Pacific, and subsidence over the eastern Pacific. It is the fundamental link between changes in sea surface temperatures (SST) in the Eastern Pacific and variability of Indian Monsoon. 
Statement 2 is incorrect: El Nino:  Walker circulation weakened o Low pressure on Eastern Pacific. Reduced East-West SST gradient across pacific ocean. Trade winds weaken/ Reverse. Weak Indian Monsoon.
Statement 3 is correct: La Nina:  Walker circulation intensifies. High Pressure on Eastern Pacific. Warmer than usual SST over Western Pacific (Australia). Strong Trade winds.

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Due to the ‘opposition’ effect, Mars looked much brighter and bigger than usual in astronomy, is the circumstance in which two celestial bodies appear in opposite directions in the sky. 
Examples: 
•The Moon, when full, is said to be in opposition to the Sun; the Earth is then approximately between them. 
•A superior planet (one with an orbit farther from the Sun than Earth’s) is in opposition when Earth passes between it and the Sun. 
•The opposition of a planet is a good time to observe it, because the planet is then typically at its nearest point to the Earth for a given year and because it is close, the planet appears brighter in the sky.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The planets Venus and Mercury, whose orbits are smaller than Earth’s, can never be in opposition to the Sun.

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Saline (usara) soils are Physiologically dry soils formed due to presence of excess soluble salts like sodium, potassium & magnesium.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Basalt contains a high proportion of saline soils base. The Upward movement of salts i.e. capillary action in poor drained soils leads to formation of saline soils. Leaching is a phenomena of humid conditions. 
Statement 3 is incorrect: Saline soils are not fit for cultivation. Excess salts are removed physically through proper water management or through chemical reclamation by adding calcium containing materials like gypsum. 

Explanation: 

Statement 1 and 3 are correct: Isostatic change:

Sea level change due to movement of land in relation to sea in specific areas. Land rises, sea level falls and vice versa.It leads to local changes in sea level. It leads to formation of emergent landforms e.g. Sea cliffs , sea beaches.

 Statement 2 is incorrect: 

Eustatic Change:Sea level changes due to alteration in volume of water in oceans. E.g. Change in shape of ocean basin can change the amount of water it can hold.It has global effect. It leads to the formation of submergent landforms when water starts to flood land. E.g. Ria , Fjords, Dalmatian Coastline. 

Explanation: Footloose industry is a general term for an industry that can be placed and located at any location without effect from factors such as resources or transport.  These industries often have spatially fixed costs, which means that the costs of the products do not change despite where the product is assembled. These industries can be located at a wide variety of places, as these are not weight-losing nor raw-material-specific. These are generally not polluting industries An example of a footloose processing industry is honey. The weight of the raw  honey and wax is the same as the finishing product. Examples of footloose industries include: 
1. computer chips manufacturing 
2. Diamond manufacturing 
3. Smartphones assembling 
4. cotton textile industry
5. Honey Processing industry 
Non-footloose industries generally require raw material availability within a time limit to make products. Sugar industry, jute industry and tea industry are examples of non-footloose industries. 

Explanation: When both organisms are living in a similar niche and are in competition for resources or space. This results in a negative outcome for each organism as it reduces the available resource for both parties. Hyena and lioness both compete with each other for its kill and this competition for resource leads to both groups suffering at different times. 

Explanation: The Bhitarkanika wetland is represented by as many as 3 protected Areas, namely “The Bhitarkanika National Park”, “The Bhitarkanika Wildlife Sanctuary” and “The Gahirmatha Marine Sanctuary”. 
Bhitarkanika is a unique habitat of Mangrove Forests criss-crossed with numerous creeks and mud flats located in Kendrapara district of Orissa. It is one of the largest Mangrove Eco systems in India, Bhitarkanika is home to diverse flora and fauna. 

Explanation: World Resources Institute is a global research organization that spans more than 60 countries, with offices in the United States, China, India, Brazil, Indonesia and more. Our more than 1,000 experts and staff work closely with leaders to turn big ideas into action to sustain our natural resources. It releases Environment Democracy Index (EDI). It is first-ever publicly available, online platform that tracks countries’ progress in enacting national laws to promote transparency, access to justice and citizen engagement in environmental decision making.  It focuses on seven critical issues at the intersection of environment and development: climate, energy, food, forests, water, cities and the ocean. 

Explanation: Ecological tipping point is a critical point in an evolving situation that leads to a new and irreversible development. Urban flooding in Chennai is mainly due to encroachment of the drainage channels and increasing population pressure. This is not right now a situation which is either new or irreversible (Reviving water channels, promoting watershed).  All other are examples of ecological tipping point where climate change and global warming is leading to a new ecosystem and something which is irreversible. 

Explanation: Net Primary Productivity is how much carbon dioxide vegetation takes in during photosynthesis minus how much carbon dioxide the plants release during respiration. It is a way of measuring carbon metabolism of the earth’s vegetation.  Net primary productivity is tied to seasonal change, with productivity peaking in each hemisphere’s summer. The boreal forests of Canada and Russia experience high productivity in June and July and then a slow decline through fall and winter. It is high in tropical forest of Amazon in dry season from roughly August through October, which is the area’s dry season. Because the trees have access to a plentiful supply of ground water that builds up in the rainy season, they actually grow better when the rainy skies clear and allow more sunlight to reach the forest.

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: The LDN Fund is an impact investment fund blending resources from the public, private and philanthropic sectors to support achieving LDN through sustainable land management and land restoration projects implemented by the private sector. A private sector investment management firm Mirova, an affiliate of Natixis Investment Managers dedicated to responsible investing, was selected competitively to manage the LDN Fund.
Statement 2 is correct: Land degradation neutrality (LDN) is a condition where further land degradation (loss of productivity caused by environmental or human factors) is prevented and already degraded land can be restored.
Statement 3 is incorrect: It is an initiative of South Korea to use ecological restoration as a peace-building process. It aims at addressing the issue of land degradation in conflict-torn border areas and would go a long way in alleviating tensions and building trust between communities living there and between enemy countries in particular.

Explanation: Running water, such as in a mountain stream or large river, tends to contain a lot of dissolved oxygen, whereas stagnant water contains less as stagnant water leads to algae growth causing rise in oxygen demand. 
High Biological Oxygen Demand shows highly polluted water as it is oxygen needed by bacteria in decomposing the organic wastes present in water. 

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: With human encroachment on natural areas intensifying, particularly in those with high biological richness and bats recognised as important reservoirs of zoonotic viruses considerable concern and interest have been expended on them. 
Statement 2 is correct: The recent viral outbreaks like Ebola, Nipah and Covid establishes a close link between zoonotic diseases and bats. To navigate dark caves and hunt after dark, bats rely on echolocation, a system that allows them to locate objects using sound waves. They echolocate by making a high-pitched sound that travels until it hits an object and bounces back to them. This echo tells them an object’s size and how far away it is.
Statement 3 is Incorrect: Bats can be found nearly everywhere, except in polar regions, extreme deserts, and a few isolated islands. They spend their daylight hours hiding in roosts around the tropics, dense forests, and wetlands. Roosts are where bats go to rest, usually in cracks and crevices that keep them hidden and protected. The most common roosts are existing structures such as caves, tree hollows, and old buildings.

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The endangered Nilgiri tahr (an Asian goat-antelope) is endemic to the shola-grassland, and its range is now restricted to a 400-km stretch of shola-grassland mosaic, from the Nilgiri Hills to the Agasthyamalai Hills. 
Statement 2 is correct: A biodiversity hotspot is a biogeographic region with significant levels of biodiversity that is threatened by human habitation. Western ghats have been classified as the biodiversity hotspots. Other biodiversity hotspots falling fully or partially in India are: Indo-Burma Region, Sundaland, The Himalayas. 
Statement 3 is incorrect: The shola-forest and grassland complex has been described as a climatic climax vegetation with forest regeneration and expansion restricted by climatic conditions such as frost or soil characteristics while others have suggested that it may have anthropogenic origins in the burning and removal of forests by early herders and shifting agriculturists. 

Explanation: The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) has developed the criteria of categorization of industrial sectors based on the Pollution Index which is a function of the emissions (air pollutants), effluents (water pollutants), hazardous wastes generated and consumption of resources. 
Red Category: Pulp & Paper, Lubricating oil, Organic Chemicals, Cement, Asbestos etc
Orange Category: Brickfields, Coal washeries, Copper waste recyclers, Dry cell battery etc. 
Green Category: Cement products, Candy, Ceramic colour by mixing, Flour mills etc.