Results

Supreme Court in Mohini Jain v. State of Karnataka (1989) held that the right to education is a fundamental right under Article 21 of the Constitution which cannot be denied to a citizen by charging a higher fee known as the capitation fee.The right to education flows directly from the right to life. The right to life under Article 21 and the dignity of an individual cannot be assured unless it is accompanied by the right to education.The Constitution (Eighty-sixth Amendment) Act, 2002 inserted Article 21-A in the Constitution of India to provide free and compulsory education of all children in the age group of six to fourteen years as a Fundamental Right.

Supreme Court in Joseph Shine case, 2018 said that the 158-year-old Section 497 was unconstitutional and is violative of the Right to life and personal liberty, and the Right to equality.Court held two individuals may part if one cheats, but to attach criminality to infidelity is going too far. Married couples deal with adultery, which is absolutely a matter of privacy.And it is time to say that a husband is not the master of his wife. Legal sovereignty of one sex over another sex is wrong.Section 497 is based on the Doctrine of Coverture, which holds that a woman loses her identity and legal right with marriage. This is a violation of fundamental rights and is not recognized by the Constitution.

The conflict between FRs and DPSPs:

• Champakam Dorairajan v. the State of Madras (1951): Supreme Court ruled that in case of any conflict between the FRs and the DPSP, the former would prevail.

• The 25th Amendment Act,1971 inserted a new Article 31C having two provisions affecting FRs and DPSPs implementation:

• No law which seeks to implement the socialistic Directive Principles specified in Article 39 (b) and (c) shall be void on the ground of contravention of the FRs conferred by Article 14, or Article 19.

• No law containing a declaration for giving effect to such policy shall be questioned in any court on the ground that it does not give effect to such a policy.

• In the Kesavananda Bharti case (1973), Supreme Court declared the above second provision of Article 31 C as unconstitutional and invalid on the ground that judicial review is a basic feature of the Constitution and hence cannot be taken away.

• However, the first provision of Article 31C was held to be constitutional.

In the judgment of National Capital Territory of Delhi v.Union of India, 2018, Supreme Court held barring police, public order, and land the L-G’s concurrence is not required on other issues. However, the decisions of the CoM will have to be communicated to the L-G. For more details see explanation of Question no.7 in Practice Test 4 in the Executive chapter.

In Shafin Jahan v. KM Ashokan, 2018 also known as the Hadiya case, Supreme Court held the right to marry a person of one’s choice is integral to Article 21 of the Indian Constitution.

In the Ramlila Maidan Incident case, Supreme Court had stated “Citizens have a Fundamental Right to assembly and peaceful protest which cannot be taken away by an arbitrary executive or legislative action.” Similarly in Amit Sahni v. Commissioner of Police 2020,  dealing with Shaheen Bagh anti-CAA road-blocking protests, the court held that the right to peaceful protest against legislation is appreciable but that does not mean public ways and public spaces can be occupied in such a manner, and that too indefinitely.

The doctrine of "essentiality" was invented by a seven-judge Bench of the Supreme Court in the 'Shirur Mutt' case in 1954. 

• Article 25 of the Constitution guarantees the “freedom of conscience and the right freely to profess, practise and propagate religion”. However, this right isn’t absolute and is subject to public order, morality, health, and other fundamental rights. 

• Courts (and not the Constitution), over the years, have ruled that the right under Article 25 would protect only “essential religious practices” and not all religious practices. So, this test decides which religious practices are protected under the Constitution. 

• Courts took upon themselves the responsibility of determining the essential and non-essential practices of a religion.

• Courts have taken various approaches like scriptural basis, prevalence of the practice, origin of the practice etc. to determine essentiality of a religious practice.

• In 2016, the Bombay High Court permitted women to enter the sanctum sanctorum of the Haji Ali Dargah, ruling that the Haji Ali Dargah Trust’s decision to exclude them was illegal and unconstitutional. In its judgment, the court ruled that the Trust had failed to place any material on record to demonstrate that the exclusion of women from dargahs was an “essential feature” of Islam. 

• More recently, in 2017, the Supreme Court ruled that triple talaq was not an essential practice of Islam and could not be offered constitutional protection under Article 25. 

• A year later in 2018, the Supreme Court in the Sabarimala case rejected the claim of ‘Ayyappans’ (pilgrims) that the exclusion of women between the age of 10 and 50 from entering the temple constituted an essential practice. A review petition against this decision is pending in the Supreme Court. 

• Recently, the Karnataka High Court held that wearing the hijab does not constitute an essential religious practice under Islam — which means it can be regulated by the state. 

• Strict Liability Principle: A company is not liable and need not pay compensation if a hazardous substance escapes its premises by accident or unforeseeable situation among other circumstances.

• Absolute Liability Principle: A company cannot claim any exemption and has to pay compensation, whether or not the disaster was caused by its negligence.

• The judgment of the MC Mehta case came upon the incident of the Oleum gas leak case of Delhi in 1986. Supreme Court in this case found that the strict liability principle has been inadequate to protect citizens’ rights and replaced it with the absolute liability principle.

• The Supreme court extended the scope of Articles 21 and 32 of the constitution of India and held that its power under Article 32 is not restricted to preventive measures, but also remedial measures when rights are violated.

• The court also held that the Right to clean environment is a Fundamental Right giving wide connotation to Right to life under Article 21.

• Supreme Court laid the Vishakha guidelines to prevent sexual harassment of working women. 

• It held that sexual harassment is against women’s dignity and it is a violation of Articles 14, 15 (1), and (2) of the constitution. 

• Later Parliament made “The Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act 2013” based on the Vishaka guidelines.

• Mechanism: The Act defines sexual harassment at the workplace and creates a mechanism for redressal of complaints.

• Every employer is required to constitute an Internal Complaints Committee at each office or branch with 10 or more employees.

• The Complaints Committees have the powers of civil courts for gathering evidence.

• The Complaints Committees are required to provide for conciliation before initiating an inquiry if requested by the complainant.

• Penal Provisions: Penalties have been prescribed for employers. Non-compliance with the provisions of the Act shall be punishable with a fine.

• Repeated violations may lead to higher penalties and cancellation of license or registration to conduct business.

• Responsibility of Administration: The State Government will notify the District Officer in every district, who will constitute a Local Complaints Committee (LCC) so as to enable women in the unorganised sector or small establishments to work in an environment free of sexual harassment. Thus, the Act has the provisions to protect the women from sexual harassment, working in both organized and unorganized sector.

• In State of West Bengal vs. Union of India (1962), the state of West Bengal challenged the constitutionality of the Coal Bearing Areas (Acquisition and Development) Act (1957) enacted by the Parliament because the ownership of the land was vested in the state government.

• The Supreme Court ruled that the state right in the matter was subject to the Union right and national interest under the Constitution.

• Chief Justice threw significant light on the fact that our Constitution does not recognize the sovereignty of the states and the sovereignty rests with the Union of India.

• Therefore, the states are not in a position to challenge the legislative competence of the Union.

• The Apex Court held that the Indian Constitution did not propound a principle of absolute federalism. Though the authority was decentralized this was mainly due to the arduous task of governing the large territory.

• The Court outlined the characteristics, which highlight the fact that the Indian Constitution is not a “traditional federal Constitution”.

• Firstly, there is no separate Constitution for each State as is required in a federal state.The Constitution is the supreme document, which governs all the states.

• Secondly, the Constitution is liable to be altered by the Union Parliament alone and the units of the country i.e. the States have no power to alter it.

• Thirdly, the distribution of powers is to facilitate local governance by the states and national policies to be decided by the Centre.

• Lastly, as against a federal Constitution, which contains internal checks and balances, the Indian Constitution renders supreme power upon the courts to invalidate any action violative of the Constitution. The Supreme Court further held that both the legislative and executive power of the States are subject to the respective supreme powers of the Union.

• Legal sovereignty of the Indian nation is vested in the people of India. Political sovereignty is distributed between the Union and the States with greater weight in favor of the Union.

• Another reason which militates against the theory of the supremacy of States is that there is no dual citizenship in India.

• Thus, the Court concluded that the structure of the Indian Union as provided by the Constitution one is centralized, with the States occupying a secondary position vis-à-vis the Centre, hence the Centre possessed the requisite powers to acquire properties belonging to States.

 • In Rustom Cavasjee Cooper vs Union of India, 1970 case, the apex court said that President’s decision to promulgate ordinance could be challenged on the grounds that ‘immediate action’ was not required; and the Ordinance had been passed primarily to bypass debate and discussion in the legislature. So, when the executive abuses its power to issue ordinances, the judiciary could intervene.

 • In A. K Roy V/s Union of India Case (1980) the Apex Court held that President’s Ordinance making power is not beyond the scope of judicial review. However, such review could only be done when there were substantial grounds to challenge the decision.

 • The Supreme Court in A.K Roy case held that the subjective satisfaction of the President is not completely non-justiciable.

 • In T Venkata Reddy V/s. State of Andhra Pradesh Case (1987 ) the Court Over-ruled its A.K. Roy Judgment and held that Ordinance making power of the President and the Governor was a legislative power, this implies that the motives behind the exercise of this power cannot be questioned, just as is the case with legislation by the Parliament and state legislatures. Court held that the Satisfaction of the President cannot be called in question in the Court of law and is out of Judicial Review.

 • In D.C Wadhwa Case (1987), the Apex Court held that the repeated re-promulgation of ordinances is a fraud on the Constitution and a subversion of democratic legislative processes.

 • In Krishna Kumar Singh Case (2017), the Supreme Court held that the authority to issue ordinances is not an absolute entrustment, but is “conditional upon satisfaction that circumstances exist rendering it necessary to take immediate action”. Hence, wisdom behind ordinances could be questioned in courts of law.

 • Court further stated that the actions taken under unconstitutional ordinances could be nullified unless they are irreversible or reversing them could gravely violate public interest. In Rustom Cavasjee Cooper vs Union of India, 1970 case, the apex court said that President’s decision to promulgate ordinance could be challenged on the grounds that ‘immediate action’ was not required; and the Ordinance had been passed primarily to bypass debate and discussion in the legislature. So, when the executive abuses its power to issue ordinances, the judiciary could intervene.

 • In A. K Roy V/s Union of India Case (1980) the Apex Court held that President’s Ordinance making power is not beyond the scope of judicial review. However, such review could only be done when there were substantial grounds to challenge the decision.

 • The Supreme Court in A.K Roy case held that the subjective satisfaction of the President is not completely non-justiciable.

 • In T Venkata Reddy V/s. State of Andhra Pradesh Case (1987 ) the Court Over-ruled its A.K. Roy Judgment and held that Ordinance making power of the President and the Governor was a legislative power, this implies that the motives behind the exercise of this power cannot be questioned, just as is the case with legislation by the Parliament and state legislatures. Court held that the Satisfaction of the President cannot be called in question in the Court of law and is out of Judicial Review.

 • In D.C Wadhwa Case (1987), the Apex Court held that the repeated re-promulgation of ordinances is a fraud on the Constitution and a subversion of democratic legislative processes.

 • In Krishna Kumar Singh Case (2017), the Supreme Court held that the authority to issue ordinances is not an absolute entrustment, but is “conditional upon satisfaction that circumstances exist rendering it necessary to take immediate action”. Hence, wisdom behind ordinances could be questioned in courts of law.

 • Court further stated that the actions taken under unconstitutional ordinances could be nullified unless they are irreversible or reversing them could gravely violate public interest.

 •  In Bijoe Emmanuel vs State of Kerala (1986), students belonging to the denomination of Jehovah’s Witnesses were allowed to abstain from singing the national anthem that they claimed to contradict their religious faith.

 • Supreme court ruled that the right to freedom of speech and expression included the right to remain silent [Articles 19(1)(a)] and upheld the freedom of conscience [Article 25].

 • The court also appealed in this judgment that "Our tradition teaches tolerance; our philosophy preaches tolerance; our constitution practices tolerance; let us not dilute it".

In Sahara vs. SEBI Case, 2011 the Supreme Court propounded the doctrine of postponement of publication of court proceedings. The bench said it is a preventive measure and not a prohibitive and punitive measure. The issue of breach of confidentiality came up when certain documents regarding the dispute between Sahara and SEBI were leaked to the media. The Court further said that temporary ban on publication of court proceedings is necessary to maintain balance between freedom of speech and fair trial for proper administration of justice. The bench said the postponement of publication of court proceedings would be required where there is a substantial risk of prejudicing the trial and administration of justice. Further the CJI, who read the judgement, said reasonable restrictions on reporting of court proceedings were needed for societal interest and this doctrine of postponement is one of “neutralising technique“. However, the Supreme Court refused to frame any guidelines across the board for reporting sub-judice matters but laid down a constitutional principle under which aggrieved parties can seek postponement of publication of court hearings. Criticism : it may create serious problems and open the floodgates for the high and mighty to seek virtual censorship, while others felt that it would not lead to unreasonable media restrictions. More recently In Sushant Singh Rajput case the Bombay High Court held that a media trial interferes with administration of justice and could lead to obstructing investigation. The court, referring to the print and electronic media coverage following the death of actor Sushant Singh Rajput, said this amounts to criminal contempt. The Bench listed certain guidelines and directed the media to refrain from any news item that causes prejudice to an ongoing inquiry/investigation: Referring to the character of the accused/victim and creating an atmosphere of prejudice for both; Holding interviews with the victim, the witnesses and/or any of their family members and displaying it on screen; Analyzing versions of witnesses, whose evidence could be vital at the stage of trial; Publishing a confession allegedly made to a police officer by an accused and trying to make the public believe that the same is a piece of evidence which is admissible before a Court and there is no reason for the Court not to act upon it, without letting the public know the nitty-gritty of the Evidence Act,

 • In Brij Bhushan vs State of Delhi Case, 1950, the Apex Court established that pre-censorship of press that is imposition of censorship on a journal previous to its publication would amount to an infringement of Article 19(1)(a).

 • This case was decided along with Romesh Thapar vs State of Madras and reasoning of the case of Braj Bhushan Sharma was given in Romesh Thapar case and vice versa. Both of these cases were decided by the Supreme Court of India sitting en banc and on the same day. Braj Bhushan Sharma case was about the pre-censorship while Romesh Thapar case was about the restriction of circulation and entry of magazine crossroad in Madras state. These cases were landmark cases of Freedom of Press and Speech / Expression.

 • PUCL, a voluntary organization, filed a public interest petition challenging the constitutional validity of Section 5(2) of Indian Telegraph Act, 1885, a piece of ancient legislation, which allowed the Central Government or the State Government, during public emergency or for public safety, to intercept messages if satisfied that it is necessary or expedient so to do on various grounds including the sovereignty and integrity of India, friendly relations with foreign states and public order.

 • The Petitioner challenged this section claiming it violated individuals’ right to privacy in the wake of a report published by the Central Bureau of Investigations on “Tapping of Politicians Phones”.

 • The Union of India, argued that the striking down of Section 5(2) would injure public interests and jeopardise the security of the state.

 • The Court in People’s Union for Civil Liberties vs. Union of India, 1996 case placed reliance on the judgments in Kharak Singh vs. State of U.P., 1963, Gobind vs. State of MP , , 1975 and R. Rajgopal vs. State of TN, 1995 and noted that though the Indian Constitution did not expressly provide for a right to privacy, the right was a part of the right to "life" and "personal liberty" under Article 21 which could not be curtailed "except according to procedure established by law". It held that only a case by case inquiry would reveal if the right had been infringed or not.

 • The Court also stated that telephone conversations were an exercise of a citizen’s right to freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a) and hence interception of these conversations must be a reasonable restriction under Article 19(2) of the Constitution.

 • The Court analysed Section 5(2) of Indian Telegraph Act, 1885 and noted that the provision clearly laid down conditions under which interception orders could be given. The first step under this provision was to satisfy two prerequisites, i.e. ‘occurrence of any public emergency’ or in ‘the interest of public safety’. The officer authorised by the Government had to be satisfied that it was “necessary or expedient” in the interest of five grounds enumerated under this section:

 • Sovereignty and integrity of India;

 • Security of the State;

 • Friendly relations with foreign States;

 • Public order; or Preventing incitement to the commission of an offence.

 • Moreover, the officer was empowered to issue the order for interception only after recording the reasons in writing. After making these observations, the Court refused to declare Section 5(2) unconstitutional, though it emphasised the need to strictly follow the two statutory prerequisites and the five grounds enumerated under Section 5(2).

 • The guidelines laid down by the Court broadly entailed the following –

 • Orders for telephone tapping could be issued by the Home Secretary of the Central Government or a State Government, and this power could be delegated only in an emergency;

 • The authority making the interception order must consider whether it was necessary to obtain the information required through such orders;

 • The interception order, unless renewed, would cease to be effective after two months from the date of issue, and limited the total period of the operation of the order to six months;

 • Detailed records were to be maintained of the intercepted communication and the procedure followed;

 • The use of intercepted material was limited to the minimum necessary for the purposes under the Act, and intercepted material would be destroyed when retention became unnecessary; and

 • Review committees should be constituted at Central and State levels to assess compliance with the law.

 • The Supreme court in the Minerva Mills case ruled that the power of the Parliament to amend the constitution is limited by the constitution itself. 

 • FRs and DPSPs together constitute the core of the commitment to social revolution.

 • To give absolute primacy to one over the other through the lawmaking power of the Parliament is to disturb the harmony of the Constitution.

 • This harmony and balance between the two is an essential feature of the basic structure of the constitution.

Gender Equality includes protection from sexual harassment and right to work with dignity, which is universally recognized as basic Human Right. This principle was laid down by the Supreme Court in Vishakha vs. State of Rajasthan Case, 1997 case.

In S.R. Bommai v Union of India, the Supreme Court reiterated that secularism is a basic feature of the Constitution as affirmed in Kesavananda and Indira Nehru Gandhi.  “Any step inconsistent with this constitutional policy is, in plain words, unconstitutional”, the court had observed in Bommai case.

 • Our Constitution gives the freedom to practice and professes any religion, which also includes the freedom to convert to any other religion which was not assigned to a person by birth. However, with diverse religions and personal laws, this provision is sometimes misused.

 • Constitution gives the freedom to practice and professes any religion, which also includes the freedom to convert to any other religion which was not assigned to a person by birth. However, with diverse religions and personal laws, this provision is sometimes misused.

 • This issue was scrutinized by the Supreme Court at length in the landmark case of Sarla Mudgal & Ors. v. Union of India.

 • The Apex Court held that when a marriage takes place under Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 certain rights and status are acquired by both the parties, and if one of the parties is allowed to dissolve the marriage by adopting and enforcing a new personal law, it would destroy the existing rights of the spouse who continues to be Hindu. A marriage performed under the act cannot be dissolved except only on the grounds given under the same act.

 • The court advocated the necessity of the Uniform Civil Code (hereinafter UCC) in the Indian legal system, that will stop Indians from trespassing the personal law of one another. The court further directed the Government of India through the Secretary of Ministry of Law and Justice, to file an affidavit regarding the steps taken by the Government of India towards securing a UCC for the citizens of India. 

The Mathura rape case was an incident of custodial rape on 26 March 1972, wherein Mathura, a young tribal girl, was allegedly raped by two policemen on the compound of Desaiganj Police Station in Gadchiroli district of Maharashtra. However, in Tukaram vs. State of Maharashtra (Mathura’s Case) the Supreme Court reversed the High Court ruling and acquitted the accused policemen.  The Supreme Court held that Mathura had raised no alarm; and also that there were no visible marks of injury on her body thereby suggesting no struggle and therefore no rape. The judges noted, "Because she was used to sex, she might have incited the cops (they were drunk on duty) to have intercourse with her.

Explanation 
Statement 1 is incorrect: To measure the age of plant and animal remains from the more recent past, scientists use a radioactive isotope of carbon, called carbon-14, as their clock. As carbon-14 decays, with a half-life of about 5,730 years, it becomes nitrogen-14. Using this clock, they have dated bones, campfires and other objects as old as 60,000 years, and in some cases even older. 
Statement 2 and 3 is correct: DNA barcoding uses specific regions of DNA in order to identify species. Initiatives are taking place around the world to generate DNA barcodes for all groups of living organisms and to make these data publicly available in order to help understand, conserve, and utilize the world’s biodiversity. For land plants the core DNA barcode markers are two sections of coding regions within the chloroplast, part of the genes, rbcL and matK. In order to create high quality databases, each plant that is DNA barcoded needs to have an herbarium voucher that accompanies the rbcL and matK DNA sequences
The quality of the DNA sequences, the primers used, and trace files should also be accessible to users of the data. Multiple individuals should be DNA barcoded for each species in order to check for errors and allow for intraspecific variation. The world’s herbaria provide a rich resource of already preserved and identified material and these can be used for DNA barcoding as well as by collecting fresh samples from the wild. These protocols describe the whole DNA barcoding process, from the collection of plant material from the wild or from the herbarium, how to extract and amplify the DNA, and how to check the quality of the data after sequencing.

Explanation 
Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) mutations are a common cause of genetic disease with pathogenic mtDNA mutations being detected in approximately 1 in 250 live births. MtDNA is transmitted maternally and it has been proposed that Pronuclear transferer techniques may be an approach to prevent the transmission of human mtDNA disease.

Explanation :Photocell 
Statements 1 and 2 are correct: A photocell is a device whose electrical properties (and not chemical properties) are affected by light. A photocell converts a change in intensity of illumination into a change in photo current. It is a technological application of the photoelectric effect.
Statement 3 is correct: The photocells, inserted in the door light electric circuit, are used as automatic door opener. A person approaching a doorway may interrupt a light beam which is incident on a photocell. The abrupt change in photo current may be used to start a motor that opens the door or rings an alarm (burglar alarm).

Explanation: Recombinant DNA technology (RDT) 
Statement 1 is correct: Inserting the desired gene into the genome of the host is not as easy as it sounds. It involves the selection of the desired gene for administration into the host followed by a selection of the perfect vector with which the gene has to be integrated and recombinant DNA formed.
Thus, the recombinant DNA has to be introduced into the host. And at last, it has to be maintained in the host and carried forward to the offspring. 
Releasing the organisms carrying foreign genes in the wild can have disastrous outcome in the terms of ecosystem. But if the gene gives any sort of survival advantage to the organism it will certainly increase the survival of the individuals carrying the gene and certainly enrich the gene pool of the species. 
Statement 2 is correct: The effectively transformed cells/organisms carry forward the recombinant gene to the offspring, such as chemical transformation (transfection in case of eukaryotic cells), electroporation and using infectious viral particle with no disease causing gene are some examples of the most popular methods.
Statement 3 is incorrect: To make it stably stay in the cell, DNA fragment needs to be integrated with chromosomal DNA at suitable site.

Explanation: 
 • DNA sequencing may be used to determine the sequence of individual genes, larger genetic regions (i.e., clusters of genes or operons), full chromosomes, or entire genomes of any organism. DNA sequencing is also the most efficient way to indirectly sequence RNA or proteins (via their open reading frames). In fact, DNA sequencing has become a key technology in many areas of biology and other sciences such as medicine, forensics, and anthropology. 
Molecular biology 
 • Sequencing is used in molecular biology to study genomes and the proteins they encode. Information obtained using sequencing allows researchers to identify changes in genes, associations with diseases and phenotypes, and identify potential drug targets. Also, DNA sequencing may be useful for determining specific bacteria, to allow for more precise antibiotics treatments, hereby reducing the risk of creating antimicrobial resistance in bacteria populations. 

Explanation: Application of Embryo Transferer Technology: 
 • In humans for treating infertility, IVF and embryo transfer is needed in cases where natural fertilization is not an option or has difficulty occurring. There are many reasons for embryo transfer, including: Ovulation disorders: If ovulation is infrequent, fewer eggs are available for successful fertilization.
Damage to Fallopian tubes: The Fallopian tubes are the passageway through which the embryos travel to reach the uterus. If the tubes become damaged or scarred, it is difficult for fertilized eggs to safely reach the womb.
 • Endometriosis: When tissue from the uterus implants and grows outside of the uterus. This can affect how the female reproductive system works. 
Premature ovarian failure: If the ovaries fail, they do not produce normal amounts of oestrogen or release eggs regularly. 
Uterine fibroids: Fibroids are small, benign tumours on the walls of the uterus. They can interfere with an egg’s ability to plant itself in the uterus, preventing pregnancy. 
Genetic disorders: Some genetic disorders are known to prevent pregnancy from occurring. 
 • Impaired sperm production: In men, low sperm production, poor movement of the sperm, damage to the testes, or semen abnormalities are all reasons natural fertilization may fail. 
Creating better breeds of animals more quickly the superior female can produce a large number of ova in a very short amount of time when a superior male and female have been chosen. These embryos can be given to any host female of the same species after being fertilised by semen obtained from the chosen male. 
In contrast to the natural technique, which produces a maximum of 1 calf per pair per year, for example, in the case of cows, we can get approximately 10–20 calves of the superior male–female in a year using this method. To increase the population of wild animals for the sake of conservation, the same strategy might be used.

Explanation: 

 • Contribution of biotechnology in the field of crop production: Biotechnological tools have greatly contributed to the production and supply of improved quality seed and planting material to farmers worldwide. Among other uses, biotechnology is employed to: o speed-up the multiplication process for vegetatively propagated crops, o detect diseases transmitted by seed or planting material, o eradicate diseases transmitted by planting material, o protect seed with biological control agents, and o test varietal identity and purity o Crop biofortification o Weedicide resistant crops 
 • Organic farming o Although the crops and farming practices can be further improved using biotechnology, organic farming has been practiced by farmers across the world even before the emergence of the field of biotechnology. 
Hybrid varieties o These are improved varieties of the crops made by the use of existing germplasm using conventional breeding and selection for the desired traits.
Fragrant mango varieties :These varieties of the mango, their fruits contain volatile substances that cause a specific type of aroma from different varieties. These are mostly naturally occurring traits and some varieties have been developed by breeding of the two existing varieties.

Explanation: Bioremediation:
 • Bioremediation is any process that uses decomposers and green plants, or their enzymes, to improve the condition of contaminated environments. Bacteria can be used to clean up oil spills in the ocean through bioremediation. Specific bacteria can be used to bio-remediate specific contaminants, such as hydrocarbons, which are present in oil and gasoline.
 • Single cell protein :Single cell protein (SCP) is the first product of the fermentation process and has proven to be a good protein alternative. Food competition is becoming more intense as the world’s population continues to grow. Soon, SCP may be able to compensate for a protein deficit. Various global businesses are focusing on SCP production, and the scope of its application is expanding as time and knowledge increases.
 • Biodiesel production :Biodiesel is produced from vegetable oils, yellow grease, used cooking oils, or animal fats. The fuel is produced by Trans-esterification is a process that converts fats and oils into biodiesel and glycerine.
Bioethanol: Unlike biodiesel (specifically first generation biodiesel), the production of bioethanol is exclusively based on the utilization of microbial technology and fermentation engineering.

Explanation Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) and paleo genetics :

Statement 1 is incorrect: Circularity of the mt-DNA template is not known to have any additional advantage in amplification over linear DNA.  Mitochondria are located out of the nucleus in cytoplasm of the cells. They play a central role in cell life and death. They have small genome, independent of the nuclear DNA-mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA).
Statement 2 is correct: Mitochondrial DNAs are circular, double-stranded molecules, with high copy number, and a higher evolutionary importance compared to nuclear DNA. 
Statement 3 is correct: They have specific uniparental inheritance only from mothers to their child, which is useful for tracing matrilineal kinship in many generations . Mitochondrial DNA is a proper tool for determination of the origin of different populations. It is an important object of study in different fields such as evolutionary anthropology, population genetics, medical genetics, genetic genealogy and forensic science. Mitochondrial DNAs are not involved in recombinant processes and their variants are due only to mutations.  Mitochondrial DNA is characterized by a high mutation rate that allowed the sequential accumulation of neutral mutation-specific base replacements, especially transitions, which arose approximately at the same time, when people inhabited different regions all over the world. These mutations form groups of stable haplotypes and are known as haplogroups.  Mitochondrial DNA haplogroups tend to be geographically restricted and they are used to genetically distinguish populations.

Explanation Pathogens and vectors 
Pair 1 is correctly matched: Chagas is a parasitic disease caused by T. cruzi and transmitted mainly through the bites of the so-called “kissing bug”. o Pathogen: Trypanosoma cruzi. 
Vector: Triatomine 
Pair 2 is correctly matched: Schistosomiasis: a chronic parasitic infection caused by small worms o Pathogen: Schistosoma mansoni. o Vector: Biomphalaria mansoni.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: Lymphatic filariasis: a parasitic infection caused by worms and transmitted by Culex mosquitoes in the Americas. o Pathogen: Wuchereria bancrofti, Brugia malayi, and Brugia timori. o Vector: Anopheles (Africa), Culex quinquefasciatus (America), Aedes and Mansonia (Pacific and Asia).
Pair 4 is incorrectly matched: Onchocerciasis (river blindness) is a parasitic disease transmitted by black flies (Simulium sp).

Explanation: 
Yellow fever – (D) Live attenuated virus
Hepatitis B - (A) Protein sub- unit of virus 
Diphtheria – (C) Inactivated tetanus toxins 
Pneumococcus – (B) Carbohydrate/carbohydrate conjugates Vaccines can be classified into two broad groups: 
 • Live attenuated vaccines :
Consists of weaker strains of the pathogens. These resemble the kind of innate immunity that people who survive a live infection develop. Examples of this type include immunizations against acute diseases brought on by invariant pathogens such smallpox, yellow fever, measles, mumps, rubella, and chicken pox Live attenuated vaccines have been given to billions of people all over the world; they frequently offer protection that lasts for several decades with just a single inoculation and elicit significant cellular and antibody responses.  Any vaccine must improve on what nature has evolved because many acute infections, such those caused by the respiratory syncytial virus and malaria, do not produce full protection against reinfection.  Furthermore, pathogens that rapidly evolve (like HIV), have numerous serotypes (like dengue virus), or produce latent or persistent infection (like HIV and hepatitis C virus) present significant immunological problems.
 • Subunit vaccines :
Contains a part of the pathogen that can invoke an immune response in the recipient and confers future immunity through memory cells. Protein sub-unit: such as the vaccine against recombinant hepatitis B 
 • Toxoid vaccines: consist of inactivated toxins e.g., vaccines against diphtheria and tetanus 
 • Carbohydrate vaccines: Such as vaccines against pneumococcus. 
 • Conjugate vaccines: Such as vaccines against Haemophilus influenzae type B or meningococcus. Such vaccines usually contain substances called adjuvants, which enhance the magnitude and modulate the quality of the immune response.

Explanation: Intensified Mission Indradhanush 3.0
 • The campaign is aimed to reach those children and pregnant women who have been missed out or been left out of the Routine Immunisation Programme.
 • This is aimed to accelerate the full immunization of children and pregnant women through a mission mode intervention. 
 • In IMI 3.0, the government has placed a strong emphasis on Covid-19 appropriate behaviour because of the pandemic. 
 • For this programme, the districts have been classified to reflect 313 low risk, 152 medium risk and 250 high risk districts.
 • It is successive to ‘Universal Immunization Programme (UIP)’ launched in 1985 which was modified in 2015 as Mission Indradhanush to rapidly increase the full immunization coverage to 90%. 
 • It provides vaccination against 12 Vaccine Preventable Diseases (VPD) which include 
 • Diphtheria, Whooping cough, tetanus, polio, tuberculosis, hepatitis B, meningitis and pneumonia, Haemophilus influenzae type B infections, Japanese encephalitis (JE), rotavirus vaccine, pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV) and measles-rubella (MR).

Explanation: Methods for gene transfer
Pair 1 is correctly matched: Physical Transfection: In this method, the gene of interest is directly injected into the pronucleus of a fertilized ovum. It is the very first method that proved to be effective in mammals. This method was applicable to a wide variety of species. Other methods of physical transfection bombardment, include ultrasound particle electroporation. 
 • Chemical Transfection: One of the chemical methods of gene transfection includes transformation. In this method, the target DNA is taken up in the presence of calcium phosphate. The DNA and calcium phosphate co-precipitates, which facilitates DNA uptake. The mammalian cells possess the ability to take up foreign DNA from the culture medium. 
Pair 2 is correctly matched: Retrovirus Mediated Gene Transfer: To increase the chances of expression, the gene is transferred by means of a vector. Since retroviruses have the ability to infect the host cell, they are used as vectors to transfect the gene of interest into the target genome. 
 • Viral Vectors: Viruses are used to transfect rDNA into the animal cell. The viruses possess the ability to infect the host cell, express well and replicate efficiently. 
Pair 3 is correctly matched: Bactofection: It is the process by which the gene of interest is transferred into the target gene with the help of bacteria

Explanation: Transgenic Plant
Statement 1 is correct: Transgenic plants are the ones, whose DNA is modified using genetic engineering techniques. The aim is to introduce a new trait to the plant which does not occur naturally in the species.
Statement 2 is correct: A transgenic plant contains a gene or genes that have been artificially inserted. The inserted gene sequence is known as the transgene, it may come from an unrelated plant or from a completely different species
The purpose of inserting a combination of genes in a plant, is to make it as useful and productive as possible. This process provides advantages like improving shelf life, higher yield, improved quality, pest resistance, tolerant to heat, cold and drought resistance, against a variety of biotic and abiotic stresses. and Transgenic plants can also be produced in such a way that they express foreign proteins with industrial and pharmaceutical value. Plants made up of vaccines or antibodies (Plantibodies) are especially striking as plants are free of human diseases, thus reducing screening costs for viruses and bacterial toxins.

Explanation: 
Genetic Engineering :
Traditional hybridization procedures used in plant and animal breeding, very often lead to the inclusion and multiplication of undesirable genes along with the desired genes. 
The techniques of genetic engineering which include the creation of recombinant DNA, the use of gene cloning, and gene transfer, overcome this limitation and allow us to isolate and introduce only one or a set of desirable genes without introducing undesirable genes into the target organism.
Statement 1 is correct: Genetic engineering involves the techniques to alter the chemistry of genetic material (DNA and RNA) and thus change the phenotype of the host organism. 
There are three basic steps in genetically modifying an organism — o Identification of DNA with desirable genes; o Introduction of the identified DNA into the host; o Maintenance of introduced DNA in the host and transfer of the DNA to its progeny.
Statement 2 is correct: Sexual reproduction provides opportunities for formulation of unique combination of genetic setup, some of which may be beneficial to the organism as well as the population.

Explanation: Application of Environmental biotechnology 
Statement 1 is correct: Environmental biotechnology is the branch of biotechnology that addresses environmental problems, such as the removal of pollution, renewable energy generation or biomass production, by exploiting biological processes. 
The advantages of biotechnological treatment of wastes are as follows: biodegradation or detoxication of a wide spectrum of hazardous substances by natural microorganisms; availability of a wide range of biotechnological methods for complete destruction of hazardous wastes; and diversity of the conditions suitable for biodegradation. 
The main considerations for the application of biotechnology in waste treatment are technically and economically reasonable rate of biodegradability or detoxication of substances during biotechnological treatment, big volume of treated wastes, and ability of natural microorganisms to degrade substances.
Statement 2 is correct: Biosensors including immunosensors, aptasensors, genosensors, and enzymatic biosensors have been reported for the detection and monitoring of various environmental pollutants, using antibodies, aptamers, nucleic acids, and enzymes as recognition elements, respectively.

Explanation: Applications of microbial enzymes in food industry 
Pair 1 is correctly matched: Catalase: Food preservation (with glucose oxidase), Removal of hydrogen peroxide from milk prior to cheese production 
Pair 2 is correctly matched: Glucose oxidase: Food shelf life improvement, Food flavour improvement. 
Pair 3 is correctly matched: Pectinase: Clarification of fruit juice. 
 • -Amylase: Baking, brewing, starch liquefaction, Bread quality improvement, Rice cakes, etc 
 • Glucoamylase: Beer production, Bread quality improvement, High glucose and high fructose syrups 
 • Protease: Brewing, Meat tenderization, Coagulation of milk, Bread quality improvement, 
 • Lactase (-galactosidase): Lactose intolerance reduction in people, Prebiotic food ingredients 
 • Lipase: Cheese flavour development, Cheddar cheese production 
 • Phospholipase: Cheese flavour development, Production of lipolyzed milk fat 
 • Esterase: Enhancement of flavour and fragrance in fruit juice, De-esterification of dietary fibre, Production of short chain flavour esters 
 • Cellulase: Animal feed, Clarification of fruit juice 
 • Xylanase: Clarification of fruit juice, Beer quality improvement 

• Laccase: Polyphenol removal from wine, Baking 
 • Peroxidase: Development of flavour, colour and nutritional quality of food 
 • Acetolactate dehydrogenase: Shortening maturation of beer

Explanation: Industrial biotechnology 
Microorganisms have been used in food fermentation since ancient times and fermentation processes are still applied in the preparation of many of the food items.
Statement 1 is correct: Microbial enzymes play a major role in food industries because they are more stable than plant and animal enzymes. 
Statement 2 is correct: They can be produced through fermentation techniques in a cost-effective manner with less time and space requirement, and because of their high consistency, process modification and optimization can be done very easily. 
Many of these enzymes find numerous applications in various industrial sectors, e.g., amylolytic enzymes find applications in food, detergent, paper and textile industries. They are used for the production of glucose syrups, crystalline glucose, high fructose corn syrups, maltose syrups, etc. In detergent industry, they are used as additives to remove starch-based stains. In paper industry, they are used for the reduction of starch viscosity for appropriate coating of paper. In textile industry, amylases are used for warp sizing of textile fibres.  Similarly, enzymes like proteases, lipases or xylanases have wide applications in food sectors. The following sections give detailed and updated information about various food enzymes of microbial origin.

Explanation: Megaloblastic anaemia :
 • Megaloblastic anaemia (MA) encompasses a heterogeneous group of macrocytic anaemias characterized by the presence of large red blood cell precursors called megaloblasts in the bone marrow. This condition is due to impaired DNA synthesis, which inhibits nuclear division. Cytoplasmic maturation, mainly dependent on RNA and protein synthesis, is less impaired. This leads to an asynchronous maturation between the nucleus and cytoplasm of erythroblasts, explaining the large size of the megaloblasts.
 • The process affects haematopoiesis as well as rapidly renewing tissues such as gastrointestinal cells. Megaloblastic anaemia is most often due to hypovitaminosis, specifically vitamin B12 (cobalamin) and folate deficiencies, which are necessary for the synthesis of DNA. Copper deficiency and adverse drug reactions (due to drug interference with DNA synthesis) are other well-known causes of megaloblastic anaemia. A rare hereditary disorder known as thiamine-responsive megaloblastic anaemia syndrome (TRMA) is also identified as a cause of megaloblastic anaemia. The list of drugs associated with the disease is long however, frequently implicated agents include Pernicious anaemia 
Pernicious anaemia is a decrease in red blood cells that occurs when the intestines cannot properly absorb vitamin B12. 
Causes : Pernicious anaemia is a type of vitamin B12 anaemia. The body needs vitamin B12 to make red blood cells. We get this vitamin from eating foods such as meat, poultry, shellfish, eggs, and dairy products. 
 • A special protein, called intrinsic factor (IF), binds vitamin B12 so that it can be absorbed in the intestines. This protein is released by cells in the stomach. When the stomach does not make enough intrinsic factor, the intestine cannot properly absorb vitamin B12. Common causes of pernicious anaemia include:  Weakened stomach lining (atrophic gastritis) 
 • An autoimmune condition in which the body’s immune system attacks the actual intrinsic factor protein or the cells in the lining of your stomach that makes it.

Explanation: 
Option (a) is correct: Researchers can insert DNA fragments or genes into a plasmid vector, creating a so-called recombinant 
Option (b) is incorrect: The primary function of RNA is to create proteins via translation. RNA carries genetic information that is translated by ribosomes into various proteins necessary for cellular processes. mRNA, rRNA, and tRNA are the three main types of RNA involved in protein synthesis. 
Option (c) is incorrect: The endoplasmic reticulum (ER) is a large, dynamic structure that serves many roles in the cell including calcium storage, protein synthesis and lipid metabolism. The diverse functions of the ER are performed by distinct domains; consisting of tubules, sheets and the nuclear envelope Option (d) is incorrect: Scientists have taken advantage of plasmids to use them as tools to clone, transfer, and manipulate genes. Plasmids that are used experimentally for these purposes are called vectors. Researchers can insert DNA fragments or genes into a plasmid vector, creating a so called recombinant plasmid.

Explanation 
Option (a) is correct: Researchers can insert DNA fragments or genes into a plasmid vector, creating a so-called recombinant 
Option (b) is incorrect: The primary function of RNA is to create proteins via translation. RNA carries genetic information that is translated by ribosomes into various proteins necessary for cellular processes. mRNA, rRNA, and tRNA are the three main types of RNA involved in protein synthesis.
Option (c) is incorrect: The endoplasmic reticulum (ER) is a large, dynamic structure that serves many roles in the cell including calcium storage, protein synthesis and lipid metabolism. The diverse functions of the ER are performed by distinct domains; consisting of tubules, sheets and the nuclear envelope Option (d) is incorrect: Scientists have taken advantage of plasmids to use them as tools to clone, transfer, and manipulate genes. Plasmids that are used experimentally for these purposes are called vectors. Researchers can insert DNA fragments or genes into a plasmid vector, creating a so called recombinant plasmid.

Explanation 
The Gene Pool 
 • The total set of gene copies for all genes in a population is referred to as its gene pool. The gene pool gets its name from the idea that we are essentially taking all the gene copies—for all genes—in the individuals of a population and dumping them into one large, common pool.
 • Variations in the genome at any level by any sources enrich the gene pool of the population. 
 • Natural sources of variations are Mutation, sexual reproduction between compatible relative species, horizontal gene transfers and transductions (in case of bacterial cells), etc. 
 • Artificial sources of variations are the introduction of a foreign gene into the genome, accelerated or targeted mutation, deletion of the deleterious gene(s), etc.
 • Tissue culture is a vegetative mode of propagation that creates a clone of the mother plants, which does not add any new gene or genetic material to the existing gene pool.

Explanation Viral Infection Diagnosis (RT-PCR vs RADT)
Statement 1 is correct: RADTs are less sensitive as compared to RT-PCR, since it detects only available viral antigens in the sample while RT-PCR increases by making copies of viral genetic materials 
Statement 2 is incorrect: Rapid antigen detection test detect the presence of outer protein coat of the target virus in the patient’s sample.
Statement 3 is correct: RT-PCR only works for RNA viruses, while RADT may be useful for both DNA and RNA viruses RT-PCR test 
The reverse transcription-polymerase chain reaction test is also known as the RT-PCR test. It is a gold-standard test for diagnosing viral diseases like Ebola and SARS-CoV-2 virus infection. 

Explanation 
Intellectual property rights (IPR) for innovations in the field of biotechnology
Statement 1 is incorrect: The ® symbol is used to protect the Trademark used by any company to market or promote a product. It does not protect the product or formulation of that product.
Statement 2 is correct: In India, a ‘patentable innovation’ may enjoy the protection of IPR for a maximum period of 20 years. 
What is Intellectual Property Rights? 
 • Intellectual Property Rights (IPRs) are the rights given to the creators of intellectual property (i.e., creations of minds), which bestows the exclusive right to the creator for that product/property for a defined period of time. As per World Trade Organization (WTO), IPR can be categorized basically into two categories: copyright and industrial property. Copyright and rights related to copyright 
 • Rights of the authors of artistic and literary works are protected under “copyright and rights related to copyrights.” The protection offered under “copyright” is for a minimum duration of “60 years” after the author’s death. Intellectual properties that come under “copyright” are books, other writings, music compositions, sculpture, film, computer programs, and painting. Other “neighbouring rights” protected along with copyright are performer rights (acting, musician, and singing), phonogram producers (recordings), etc. The motto of such protection is to encourage creative works.

EXPLANATION: 
Statement 1 is incorrect: Biopharmaceuticals are medical drugs produced using biotechnology. They are produced by means other than direct extraction from a native (non-engineered) biological source. 
Statement 2 is correct: The first such substance approved for therapeutic use was recombinant human insulin. Biopharmaceuticals are medical drugs produced using biotechnology.  They are proteins (including antibodies), nucleic acids (DNA, RNA or antisense oligonucleotides) used for therapeutic or in vivo diagnostic purposes, and are produced by means other than direct extraction from a native (non-engineered) biological source.  The large majority of biopharmaceutical products are pharmaceuticals that are derived from life forms.  A potentially controversial method of producing biopharmaceuticals involves transgenic organisms, particularly plants and animals that have been genetically modified to produce drugs.

Explanation Biotech-PRIDE (Promotion of Research and Innovation through Data Exchange) Guidelines 
Statement 1 is correct: These Guidelines will be implemented through the Indian Biological Data Centre (IBDC) at the Regional Centre supported by for the Biotechnology Department of Biotechnology. 
Statement 2 is incorrect: These guidelines do not deal with generation of biological data per se but are an enabling mechanism to share and exchange information and knowledge generated as per the existing laws, rules, regulations and guidelines of the country. “Biotech-PRIDE (Promotion of Research and Innovation through Data Exchange) Guidelines” developed by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Ministry of Science and Technology India ranks number 4 amongst the top 20 countries contributing biological databases. Other existing datasets/ data centers will be bridged to this IBDC which will be called Bio-Grid. This Bio-Grid will be a National Repository for biological knowledge, information and data and will be responsible for enabling its exchange, developing measures for safety, standards and quality for datasets and establishing detailed modalities for accessing data.  The Biotech PRIDE Guidelines will facilitate this and enable exchange of information to promote research and innovation in different research groups across the country. The Biotech-PRIDE (Biotech Promotion of Research and Innovation through Data Exchange) guidelines aim at providing a well-defined framework and guiding principle to facilitate and enable sharing and exchange of biological knowledge, information and data and is specifically applicable to high-throughput, high-volume data generated by research groups across the country These guidelines do not deal with generation of biological data per se but is an enabling mechanism to share and exchange information and knowledge generated as per the existing laws, rules, regulations and guidelines of the country.  These guidelines will ensure data sharing benefits viz. maximizing use, avoiding duplication, maximized integration, ownership information, better decision making and equity of access.

Explanation 
Gynandromorphism 
Statement 1 is correct: Gynandromorphism is a characteristic of an organism that contains both male and female tissues and characteristics. 
Statement 2 is incorrect: This phenomenon is common in some arthropod taxa such as Crustacea and Arachnida.It is very rare in Odonates.
Statement 3 is correct: Gynandromorphs are usually born due to genetic aberration.
Recently, a rare biological phenomenon i.e. Gynandromorphism has been spotted in a dragonfly, the Scarlet Skimmer (Crocothemisservilia), which is found in the Kole wetlands, Kerala.  Gynandromorphs are chimeric individuals having both male and female tissues, and are Viewed by the scientific community as a genetic aberration. Even though common in some arthropod taxa such as Crustacea and Arachnida, the paper says it is very rare in Odonates and only 30 individuals from seven families have been reported with the condition worldwide.

Explanation:
Membrane Fluidity and Cholesterol 
 • Cell membranes are composed of phospholipids, proteins, and carbohydrates loosely attached through chemical interactions. Molecules are generally able to move about in the plane of the membrane, giving the membrane its flexible nature called fluidity. Two other features of the membrane contribute to membrane fluidity: the chemical structure of the phospholipids and the presence of cholesterol in the membrane 
 • Fatty acid tails of phospholipids can be either saturated or unsaturated. Saturated fatty acids have single bonds between the hydrocarbon backbones and are saturated with the maximum number of hydrogens. These saturated tails are straight and can, therefore, pack together tightly. In contrast, unsaturated fatty acid tails contain double bonds between carbon atoms, giving them a kinked shape and preventing tight packing. Increasing the relative proportion of phospholipids with unsaturated tails results in a more fluid membrane. Organisms like bacteria and yeasts that experience environmental temperature fluctuations can adjust the fatty acid content of their membranes to maintain a relatively constant fluidity. 
 • In cell membranes, cholesterol can interact with the heads of phospholipids, partly immobilizing the proximal part of the hydrocarbon chain. This interaction decreases the ability of polar molecules to cross the membrane. Cholesterol also prevents the phospholipids from packing together tightly, thereby preventing the likelihood of membrane freezing. Likewise, cholesterol acts as a structural buffer when temperatures get too warm, limiting excessive fluidity.
 • Cholesterol is also proposed to have a role in the organization of membrane lipids and proteins into functional groups called lipid rafts. These groups of proteins, phospholipids, and cholesterol are thought to compartmentalize regions of the membrane, positioning molecules with similar roles close to one another.

Explanation
Food Fortification :
Statement 1 is correct. Food fortification or enrichment is the process of adding micronutrients (essential trace elements and vitamins) to food. It can be carried out by food manufacturers, or by governments as a public health policy that aims to reduce the number of people with dietary deficiencies within a population. The predominant diet within a region can lack particular nutrients due to the local soil or from inherent deficiencies within the staple foods; the addition of micronutrients to staples and condiments can prevent large-scale deficiency diseases in these cases. E.g. Iodization of the common salt.  As defined by the World Health Organization (WHO) and the Food and Agricultural Organization of the United Nations (FAO), fortification refers to “the practice of deliberately increasing the content of an essential micronutrient, i.e. vitamins and minerals (including trace elements) in a food, to improve the nutritional quality of the food supply and to provide a public health benefit with minimal risk to health”, whereas enrichment is defined as “synonymous with fortification and refers to the addition of micronutrients to a food which is lost during processing”. Types : Fortification is present in common food items in two different ways: adding back and addition. Flour loses nutritional value due to the way grains are processed; Enriched Flour has iron, folic acid, niacin, riboflavin, and thiamine added back to it. Conversely, other fortified foods have micronutrients added to them that don’t naturally occur in those substances. An example of this is orange juice, which often is sold with added Food fortification can also be categorized according to the stage of addition: Commercial and industrial fortification (wheat flour, cornmeal, cooking oils)
Statement 2 is correct. Biofortification (breeding crops to increase their nutritional value, which can include both conventional selective breeding, and genetic engineering) Home fortification (example: vitamin D drops).

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: GM is a technology that involves inserting DNA into the genome of an organism. To produce a GM plant, new DNA is transferred into plant cells. Usually, the cells are then grown in tissue culture where they develop into plants. The seeds produced by these plants will inherit the new DNA. 
Statement 2 is correct: Genetic modification of plants involves adding a specific stretch of DNA into the plant’s genome, giving it new or different characteristics. This could include changing the way the plant grows, or making it resistant to a particular disease. The new DNA becomes part of the GM plant’s genome which the seeds produced by these plants will contain.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect. BT cotton is the only genetically modified (GM) crop that has been approved for commercial cultivation in 2002 by the Government of India. Long term studies were conducted by ICAR on the impact of Bt cotton which did not show any adverse effect on soil, microflora and animal health. However, the Parliamentary Standing Committee on Science and Technology, Environment and Forests, in its report on ‘Genetically modified crops and its impact on environment’, submitted to parliament on August 25, 2017, recommended that GM crops should be introduced in the country only after critical scientific evaluation of its benefit and safety, and also recommended restructuring of regulatory framework for unbiased assessment of GM crops. 
Statement 2 is correct: Clearance of Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is mandatory for the environmental release of Genetically Modified (GM) crops. As per the ‘’Rules 1989’’, State/UT Biotechnology Coordination Committees and District Level Committees are responsible for monitoring instances of illegal cultivation of GM crops and taking appropriate action under Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

Explanation: 
Statement 1 is incorrect: Under the Bill, DNA testing is allowed only in respect of matters listed in the Schedule to the Bill. These include offences under the Indian Penal Code, 1860, and for civil matters such as paternity suits. Further, the Schedule includes DNA testing for matters related to establishment of individual identity. 
Statement 2 is correct: The Bill provides for the establishment of a National DNA Data Bank and Regional DNA Data Banks, for every state, or two or more states. DNA laboratories are required to share DNA data prepared by them with the National and Regional DNA Data Banks. 
Statement 3 is correct: The Bill provides for the establishment of a DNA Regulatory Board, which will supervise the DNA Data Banks and DNA laboratories. The Secretary, Department of Biotechnology, will be the ex officio Chairperson of the Board. The Board will comprise additional members including: (i) experts in the field of biological sciences, and (ii) Director General of the National Investigation Agency and the Director of the Central Bureau of Investigation.

Explanation: 
Statement 1 is correct. The purpose of this Bill is to expand the application of DNA based forensic technologies to support and strengthen the justice delivery system of the country. The utility of DNA based technologies for solving crimes, and to identify missing persons, is well recognized across the world.
Statement 2 is correct: Those leaking the DNA profile information to people or entities who are not entitled to have it, will be punished with a jail term of up to three years and a fine of up to Rs.1Lakh.

Explanation: 
Statement 1 is incorrect: Stems cells are special human cells that are able to develop into many different cell types. This can range from muscle cells to brain cells. In some cases they can also fix damage tissues. Stem cells are divided into 2 main forms. They are embryonic stem cells and adult stem cells. 
Statement 2 is correct: The only stem cells now used to treat diseases are hematopoietic stem cells. These are the blood-cells forming adult stem cells found in bone morrow. Every types of blood cells in the bone marrow starts as a stem cell. Stem cells are immature cells that are able to make other blood cells that mature and function as needed.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Embryonic stem cells come from embryos that are 3 to 5 days old. At this stage, an embryo is called a blastocyst and has about 150 cells. Adult stem cells are found in small numbers in most adult tissues, such as bone marrow or fat.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Embryonic stem cells are pluripotent stem cells, meaning they can divide into more stem cells or can become any type of cell in the body. This versatility allows embryonic stem cells to be used to regenerate or repair diseased tissue and organs. Compared with embryonic stem cells, adult stem cells have a more limited ability to give rise to various cells of the body.

Explanation: 
Statement 1 is correct: Ethanol is an agro based product, mainly produced from a by product of the sugar industry, namely molasses. In years of surplus production of sugarcane, when prices are depressed, the sugar industry is unable to make timely payment of cane price to farmers. The Ethanol Blending Programme (EBP) seeks to achieve blending of Ethanol with motor sprit with a view to reducing pollution, conserve foreign exchange and increase value addition in the sugar industry enabling them to clear cane price arrears of farmers. 
Statement 2 is correct: On the occasion of World Environment Day, 5 June 2021, Hon’ble Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi released the report of the Expert Committee on Roadmap for Ethanol Blending in India by 2025. According to the report, 20% ethanol blending is within reach. The report further lays out an annual country. plan for the gradual rollout of E20 ethanol in the It suggests specific responsibilities of Union Ministries, State Governments and vehicle manufacturers for the production, supply and gradual rollout of 20% ethanol blending in petrol by 2025.

Explanation: 
Statement 1 is incorrect: It expands the scope of raw material for ethanol production by allowing use of sugarcane juice, sugar containing materials like sugar beet, sweet sorghum, starch containing materials like corn, cassava, damaged food grains like wheat, broken rice, rotten potatoes, unfit for human consumption for ethanol production. 
Statement 2 is correct: It will promote the production of biofuels in the country, under the make in India programme. For specific cases permission will be granted for the export of biofuels.

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The policy intends to ensure the adequate and sustained availability of domestic feedstock for biofuel production and blending, increasing farmers’ income, import reduction, employment generation and waste to wealth creation. 
Statement 2 is correct: NBCC was constituted under the Chairmanship of Minister, Petroleum and Natural Gas to provide overall coordination, effective end to-end implementation and monitoring of biofuel programme.

Explanation: 
Statement 1 is incorrect: Biochemical pesticides are naturally occurring substances that control pests by non-toxic mechanisms. Conventional pesticides, by contrast, are generally synthetic materials that directly kill or inactivate the pest. Biochemical pesticides include substances that interfere with mating, such as insect sex pheromones, as well as various scented plant extracts that attract insect pests to traps. 
Statement 2 is correct: Advantages of Biopesticides:
 •Biopesticides are usually inherently less toxic than conventional pesticides. 
 •Biopesticides generally affect only the target pest and closely related organisms, in contrast to broad spectrum, conventional pesticides that may affect organisms as different as birds, insects and mammals. 
 •Biopesticides often are effective in very small quantities and often decompose quickly, resulting in lower exposures and largely avoiding the pollution problems caused by conventional pesticides. 
 •When used as a component of Integrated Pest Management (IPM) programs, biopesticides can greatly reduce the use of conventional pesticides, while crop yields remain high.

Explanation
Pair 1 is incorrect: Red Biotechnology: According to the Biotechnology Innovation Organization (BIO), this is the department in charge of overseeing the development of more than 250 vaccines and drugs, including antibiotics, regenerative therapies, and the creation of artificial organs. 
Pair 2 is correct: Blue Biotechnology: By doing this, marine resources are exploited to produce goods for aquaculture, cosmetics, and health care. Furthermore, it is the branch that is most frequently employed to produce biofuels from particular microalgae. 
Pair 3 is correct: Green Biotechnology: More than 13 million farmers utilize it on a global scale to combat pests, nourish crops, and fortify them against microorganisms and extreme weather conditions like drought and cold. 
Pair 4 is incorrect: Gold Biotechnology: It is also referred to as bioinformatics and is in charge of gathering, storing, analyzing, and sorting biological data, particularly that pertaining to DNA and amino acid sequences.

Explanation: 
Statement 1 is correct: The (LOTUS-HR) project was launched in July 2017 with the intention of showcasing a cutting-edge holistic (waste) water management technique that will result in clean water that can be used for a variety of applications. Upon commissioning, the creative pilot-scale modular plant will treat 10,000 L of sewage water every day and present an end-user with a self-sustaining model.
Statement 2 is correct: Primary objective is to reduce societal costs; the first goal is to create "fit for purpose" water characteristics. The scheme makes a distinction between three different uses of water: residential, industrial, and urban agricultural. The water quality required for safe and healthy reuse for each purpose will decide the necessary treatment and reclamation stages. 
Statement 3 is correct: The LOTUS-HR project is jointly supported by the Department of Biotechnology, Ministry of Science and Technology, Government of India, and Netherlands Organization for Scientific Research /STW, Government of Netherlands.

Explanation 
Statement 1 is correct: Bio-based plastics are those made from biomass (plants), such as wood pulp, corn, sugarcane, or vegetable oil. The term "biodegradable plastics" refers to materials that are both biodegradable and combustible. Microorganisms in the environment can break them down into natural components like compost, carbon dioxide, and water.
Statement 2 is correct: Starch, sugar, cellulose, and other elements can be used to make bioplastics. Wood pulp is used to create cellulose-based bioplastics, which are then utilized to create film-based materials like wrappers. 
Statement 3 is correct: Bioplastics, which are renewable and biodegradable, can be utilized to lessen the issue of polluting plastic trash that is choking the earth and poisoning the environment. 
Statement 4 is correct: Almost 80% more energy is needed to generate bioplastic than to make regular plastic. The main issue with compostable plastic is that it would take around 40 days to decompose, by which time several small animal species would have consumed it and presumably suffered harm.

Explanation: 
 •Almost 80% more energy is needed to generate bioplastic than to make regular plastic. The main issue with compostable plastic is that it would take around 40 days to decompose, by which time several small animal species would have consumed it and presumably suffered harm.
 •The growth of the biologics market for the treatment of cancer (monoclonal antibodies), diabetes (insulin) and many other auto immune diseases has in turn resulted in creating a global opportunity for biosimilars also. 
 •Many Indian pharma companies are now making substantial investments into biosimilar development and production for gaining the first mover advantage. 
 •Cancer, arthritis, and other non communicable diseases are the main focus. 

 • In developing nations, the prevalence of non-communicable diseases has increased alarmingly. 

 • Since that complex generics and biosimilars are intended to treat non communicable diseases like cancer, asthma, and arthritis, encouraging their manufacturing can therefore have a beneficial development impact. 
 •Pharma businesses may use the biosimilars sector as a springboard to innovate, succeed, and make money.

EXPLANATION: Dholavira in ran of kutch was fortified with an imposing wall made of stone rubble set in mud mortar. This massive fortification wall and the remains of stone pillars in the citadel was are very different and are not witnessed at any other harappan site. Sites of Kalibangan and Kot diji were surrounded by massive mud-brick fortifications. Kotdiji was a fortified sight with a massive wall made of limestone rubble and mud brick. And the settlement consisted of citadel complex and a lower residential area and Kalibangan.

Explanation: The city was divided into two parts:  An upraised Citadel and a lower part of the city. The upraised Citadel in the West part was used for constructing buildings of large dimensions such as grainary, administrative buildings, pillared halls and courtyard. Some of the buildings in the Citadel might have been the residence of the rulers and aristocrats .However, Indus Valley civilization sites do not have large monumental structures such as temple or palaces for rulers, unlike Egyptian and Mesopotamian civilization. The Harappans practiced agriculture along with pastoralism . They used a variety of food crops by growing wheat, barley, gram, lentil etc.

EXPLANATION: Suktagandor is best most site of INC located in Pakistan. Its importance: bangles of clay have been found, and typical citadel on a lower town and massive fortification world of semi dressed stones Thus, a is incorrect.
Banawali in Haryana is on Saraswati River. It was oval shaped settlement, probably the only city with radial streets. Thus, statement B is correct
Daimabad is southmost site of IVC bronze sculptures, including Bronze Chariot, have been discovered here. Thus, statement 3 is incorrect.

EXPLANATION:  Statement I is incorrect: The city was divided into two parts-An upraised citadel and the lower-part of the city. An upraised citadel in the western part was used for constructing buildings of large dimensions, such as granaries, administrative buildings, pillared halls and courtyard. Some of the buildings in the citadel might have been the residence of the rulers and aristocrats. However, Indus Valley Civilisation sites do not have large monumental structures such as temples or palaces for rulers unlike Egyptian and Mesopotamian Civilisation. The granaries were intelligently designed with strategic air ducts and raised platforms which helped in storage of grains and protecting them from pests.
Statement 2 is correct: The towns were laid out in a rectangular grid pattern. The roads ran in north-south and east-west direction and cut each other at right angles

Explanation: The caves reflect a natural diversity in terms of theme and architectural styles. 
Statement l is incorrect: Reclining Buddha is located in the Ajanta caves. It is a popular iconographic depiction in Buddhism and is meant to show that all beings have the potential to be awakened and be released from the cycle _of death and rebirth. Cave No. 26 of Ajanta cave contains a 24-foot-long and nine-foot-tall sculpture of the Reclining Buddha, believed to have been carved in the 5th century AD.
Statement 2 is correct: Cave number 10 is a Buddhist Chaitya cave known as Vishwakarma cave. Here is the sculpture of a high seated Buddha in Vyakhyana mudra (teaching posture) with a large Bodhi tree at his back. 
Statement 3 is correct: At Cave 32, Gomateshwara (also known as Bahubali) was represented with creeping plants twining themselves round his limbs, snakes coming , if not of ant-hills at his feet, his hair falling over his shoulders and attended by worshippers. He is the son of the first Tirthankara, Rishabhanatha (Adinatha).
Statement 4 is correct: The Ellora cave represents the idea of vajrayana and tantric form of Buddhism_ by host fog sculptures of numerous tantric buddhist goddess in the cave number 12.

Explanation:  Statement a is incorrect. The Elephanta Caves located near Mumbai are dominated by the Shaivite faith. It is contemporary with Ellora, and its sculptures show slenderness in the body, with stark light and dark effects. Elephanta caves are Known locally as Gharapuri Caves, these were constructed about mid-5th to 6th centuries AD. 
Statement b is correct. The Bagh Caves, consisting of Buddhist mural paintings, are situated in Dhar district of Madhya Pradesh. These rock-cut cave monuments are not natural but carved over a period of time during the ancient India mostly during the Satvahana period. Bagh caves consists of 5 caves. Most significant of the five caves is Cave No. 4, commonly known as the Rang Mahal, meaning the Palace of Colours, where paintings on the wall and ceilings are still visible. This includes paintings of Bodhisattva Padmapani and Mushrnom paintings. 
Statement c is incorrect. Ellora caves were developed during the period between 5th and 11th centuries AD (newer as compared to Ajanta Caves) by various guilds from Vidarbha, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. Statement d is incorrect. The rock--cut cave tradition in Odisha is represented by Udaigiri-Khandagiri caves in the vicinity of Bhubaneswar.

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Buddhist site of Piprahwa is one of the sites that is directly related to the early life of Buddha. It is the location of the ancient city of Kapilavastu, which is the native town of Buddha. 
Statement 2 is correct. According to Pali texts and ancient Buddhist traditions. It is site of one of eight stupas constructed over the remains of Buddha. One of the earliest relic caskets with pre Mauryan Brahmi inscriptions is also found here.

Explanation: The term which Indo Persian sources of the Mughal period most frequently used to denote a peasant was raiyat or muzarian. In addition, we also encounter the terms kisan or asami. Sources of the seventeenth century refer to two kinds of peasants – khud-kashta and pahi-kashta.

Explanation: The only extant Vedic materials are the texts known as the Vedas, which were composed and handed down orally over about 10 centuries, from about the 15th to the 5th century BCE. The most important texts are also the oldest ones. They are the four collections (Samhitas) that are called the Veda, or Vedas. Sangam literature is the name given to the earliest available Tamil literature. The Sangam age roughly extends between 300 BC and 300 AD, although most work is believed to have been composed between 100 CE and 250 CE. 
Statement 1 Incorrect: Vedic texts constitute religious literature whereas Sangam texts are secular in nature 
Statement 2 is Incorrect: Further, Sangam text provides information on towns Kanchi, Madurai, and Puhar. They also mention the Greek-Roman trade.

1st Sangam: Sage Agastya at Madurai

Explanation: 
Statement 1 is incorrect: The form of the Chola government was a hereditary monarchy. The rule of primogeniture generally prevailed. The king generally appointed his Yuvaraja (heir) during his reign; however, sometimes the kings would bypass the Yuvaraj and choose an heir from the minor or younger princes who they thought were more suitable to rule. 
Statement 2 is correct: The king was the most important person in the administration. All authority rested in his hand, but he had a council (called as udankuttam) tended to form a separate class in society. Olainayakam was the chief secretary, Perundaram were the higher official while sirutaram was the lower official. 
Statement 3 is incorrect: The whole empire was divided into mandalams or provinces. Sometimes princes of the royal family were appointed governors of the provinces. Further, they were divided into valanadus (divisions), nadus (districts) and kurrams (villages). The village was the basic unit of administration.

Explanation: The word Sharmana means one who performs acts of austerity and ascetics. It refers to several Non Vedic movements parallel to Vedic Hinduism in ancient India. Hence statement 1 is correct The Shramana tradition gave rise to sects like Jainism, Buddhism, Ajivikas, ajnana, and Charvaka and was responsible for the related concepts of sa?s?ra (the cycle of birth and death) and moksha (liberation from that cycle). Hence statements 2 and 3 are correct. About the Ajnanas sect: they are believers in radical scepticism, and believed that it is impossible to attain knowledge about nature and even if we do still it is useless for attaining salvation. They believed that “Ignorance is Best”. The school was a major rival of Jainism and Buddhism.

Explanation: Zinc was a very interesting metal and was responsible for the innovation of utensils of mock silver and coins of mock gold. Because of the low boiling point (907°C) zinc was difficult to smelt. Pure zinc could be produced only after the mastery of distillation techniques, which have been described in our ancient chemical treatises. 
Statement 1 is correct: The mines of Rajasthan have given definite evidence of zinc production going back to 6th Century BC. The distillation process however was being used only from the 12th century AD, thus India was the first to produce zinc by the distillation process. 
Statement 2 is incorrect: Rajasthan and not Gujarat was the site for the first Zinc smelting.

Explanation: Chaliha Sahib, a 40 days long Sindhi festival, is a thanks-giving ceremony in honour of Varuna Deva and Jhulelal for listening to their prayers which generally occurs in July-August of every year. This unique festival which is celebrated by Hindu community in Sindh province of Pakistan and thereby promoting communal harmony Hence 1st pair is correct. 
Nanda Raj Jaat Yatra or Himalayan Mahakumbh is a festival in Uttarakhand in which Goddess Nanda Devi (also known as Gaura and Raj Rajeshwari in Garhwal division) is worshipped. Devotees from both Garhwal and Kumaon regions of the state of Uttarakhand along with other parts of the country participate in the sacred yatra. Wari Warkari is an annual pilgrimage to Pandharapur in Maharashtra, the seat of Hindu god Vithoba, celebrated by the Warkari community. Hence 2nd and 3rdpairs are incorrectly matched.

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: The concept of Bodhisattva is central to the Mahayana sect of Buddhism. Hence The Mahayana sect, which means ‘Great Vehicle’ in Sanskrit, believed in the divinity of the Buddha. The sect encouraged idol worship in Buddhism. 
The Hinayana sect, meaning ‘Small Vehicle’ in Sanskrit, did not believe in the divinity of the Buddha. It stressed individual salvation through self-discipline and mediation.
Statement is 2 correct: Bodhisattvas are enlightened beings who have put off entering paradise in order to help others attain enlightenment. Renouncing their own salvation and immediate entrance into nirvana, they devote all their power and energy to saving suffering beings in this world. 
Statement is 3 correct: Avalokitesvara, Vajrapani, Manjusri, Samantabhadra, Ksitigarbha, Akasagarbha, Tara, Vasudhara, Skanda, Sitatapatra are some of the prominent Boddhisattvas under Buddhism.

Explanation:  Statement 1 is correct: Theoretically, the number of Buddhas having existed is enormous and they are often collectively known under the name of "Thousand Buddhas". Each was responsible for a life cycle. According to some Buddhist traditions, D?pankara (also D?pamkara) was a Buddha who reached enlightenment eons prior to Gautama, the historical Buddha. Generally, Buddhists believe that there has been a succession of many Buddhas in the distant past and that many more will appear in the future; D?pankara, then, would be one of numerous previous Buddhas, while Gautama was the most recent, and Maitreya will be the next Buddha in the future.
Statement 3 is correct: Chinese Buddhism tends to honour D?pankara as one of many Buddhas of the past. D?pankara, Gautama (Buddha of the present), and Maitreya (Buddha of the future), collectively form the Buddhas of Three Times.
Statement 2 is correct: Dipankara had become a figure of veneration in Nepalese Buddhist communities.The followers consider him a protector of merchants and associate him with alms-giving, and is associated with wealth, prosperity and abundance. He is also considered the protector of sailors, and sometimes statues of Dipankara are found on the coastline to guide and protect the ships in their route. He is respected under all three subsects of Buddhism- Mahayana, Vajrayana and even Theravada.

Explanation: Jainism and Buddism were two principal religions belonging to sharmana tradition or heterodox school, that rejected the authority of Vedas. Both were inspired by the philosophy of the Upanishads. However, there were points of difference: Jainism recognised the existence of god, while Buddhism did not. Jainism believes in the transmigration of the soul i.e. reincarnation while Buddhism does not and rejects the concept of the existence of the soul altogether. Hence Statement 1 is correct 
Jainism did not condemn the varna system as Buddhism did. Hence Statement 2 is correct Both Buddhism and Jainism recognise that we are bound to the cycle of suffering by karma (actions) and unwholesome mental states, primarily, ignorance and liberation is the ultimate goal. 
In Jainism it is believed that salvation and Nirvana is possible only after death. The Soul needs to free itself from the bondages of karma by attaining supreme knowledge, Kaivalya. Moksha is the highest and noblest objective a soul shall strive to achieve. In Buddhism to attain Moksha or Salvation you need not go through practices which compel you to put yourself in the position of self mortification. One attains Moksha, when one free oneself from all the desires and it is possible to attain Moksha while living in the world. Thus liberation from desires is salvation in Buddhism. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Explanation: The answer is self-explanatory. Other travel accounts of Marco Polo are; the travels of Marco Polo, The book of Sir Marco Polo, Florida Marco polo.

Explanation: Saint Nimbarka, was a Telugu brahmin, who was younger contemporary of Ramanuja (11th century). He is believed to be a devotee of Krishna. Anar lived in 16th century. Hence statement 1 is incorrect Saint Kabir was nirgun bhakti saint who lived in 15th century, while Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi was an Islamic scholar of naqshbandi who lived in 16th 17th century between 1564-1624. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

Explanation:
•The Tattvartha Sutra, also known as the "Moksha-shastra" (Scripture on liberation) is an important Jain text that contains the teachings of Lord Mahavira, the last Tirthankara ( spiritual teacher) of Jainism. 
•It is written in the form of sutras (aphorisms) and covers a wide range of topics related to Jain philosophy, ethics, and metaphysics. 
•The text is considered to be one of the most authoritative works on Jainism and is widely regarded as one of the foundational texts of Jainism.

Explanation: 
Al-Beruni was a medieval Muslim scholar, polymath and traveler from Central Asia who lived in the 11th century. He wrote the famous work "Kitab-ul-Hind" (Book of India) in which he described the culture, society, and politics of India during that time, but he did not serve as an advisor to King Krishna Deva Raya of the Vijayanagara Empire.  The main advisors of King Krishna Deva Raya were Timmarusu, who was a prime minister and a general and was known for his administrative abilities; Sayana, who was a renowned scholar and court poet; and Vyasatirtha, who was a spiritual advisor and a theologian. All these advisors played a significant role in the administration and governance of the kingdom during the reign of King Krishna Deva Raya

Explanation:
Toda Embroidry: Tamil Nadu
Sonzi Embroidry: Kashmir

Explanation: Agricultural surplus, the growth of crafts and trade, and the growing population led to the emergence of towns in the Gangetic plains. This is called the second urbanization in Indian history after the first urbanization evident in the Harappan Civilization. Different types of towns came into being:
(i)    Political and administrative centres such as Rajgriha, Shravasti, Kaushambi and Champa
(ii)     Centres of trade and commerce such as Ujjain and Taxila 
(iii)    Holy centres such as Vaishali. 
Hence only 1 & 3 are correctly matched.

Explanation: Between the sixth and the fourth centuries BCE, Magadha (in present-day Bihar) became the most powerful mahajanapada. There were many factors for their rise. Magadha was drained by rivers like Ganga and its tributaries, fertile soil and hence agriculture was especially productive. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
Iron mines (in present-day Jharkhand) were accessible and provided resources for tools and weapons. Hence, statement 2 is correct. 
Elephants, an important component of the army, were found in forests in the region. Hence, statement 3 is correct. 
Also, early Buddhist and Jaina writers who wrote about Magadha attributed its power to the policies of individuals: ruthlessly ambitious kings of whom Bimbisara, Ajatasattu and Mahapadma Nanda are the best known, and their ministers, who helped implement their policies. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Explanation: Muziris, Korkai, Kaveripattinam and Arikamedu on Southern tip of present day India were the main centers of this trade and major ports belong to the Sangam age.

Explanation: All the statements above are correct Rig vedic people personified the natural forces and looked upon them as living beings to whom they attributed human or animal attributes.The most important God in Rigveda is Indira or Purandhar .Other important God are Agni ,Varun ,Soma and Maruts. Many hymns were devoted to women deities as Aditi and Usha. Therefore, Rig Vedic religion can be described as naturalistic polytheism. Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct. Striking similarities between Rig vedic religion and Iranian Avesta. The fire altar or vedi is mentioned in Rig veda and fire worship is very important in the Avesta. Hence statements 2 is correct.

Explanation: Al-Biruni was born in 973, in Khwarizm in present day Uzbekistan where he received the best education available at the time. He was well-versed in several languages: Syriac, Arabic, Persian, Hebrew and Sanskrit. Although he did not know Greek, he was familiar with the works of Plato and other Greek philosophers, having read them in Arabic translations. Al-Biruni’s expertise in several languages allowed him to compare languages and translate texts. He translated several Sanskrit works, including Patanjali’s work on grammar, into Arabic. For his Brahmana friends, he translated the works of Euclid (a Greek mathematician) into Sanskrit. 

Explanation: The Gupta empire was established by Sri Gupta on the ruins of the Kushan empire and ruled for more than 200 years. The coins of the Gupta rulers are extraordinary examples of artistic excellence and A lot about their dynastic history is known by their coins. The rulers of the Gupta dynasty issued the largest number of gold coins called Dinar in India. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
The Gupta rulers also issued silver coins but the coins made of copper are very scarce. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. 

The coins depicted the ruling monarch on the obverse and carried a legend with the figure of a goddess on the reverse Hence, statement 2 is correct.. 
The inscription on coins were all in Sanskrit in Brahmi script for the first time. Hence, statement 3 is correct

Explanation: ‘Classical’ languages in India Currently, six languages enjoy the ‘Classical’ status: Tamil (declared in 2004), Sanskrit (2005), Kannada (2008), Telugu (2008), Malayalam (2013), and Odia (2014). The guidelines for declaring a language as ‘Classical’ are: High antiquity of its early texts/recorded history over a period of 1500-2000 years; A body of ancient literature/texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by generations of speakers; The literary tradition be original and not borrowed from another speech community; The classical language and literature being distinct from modern, there may also be a discontinuity between the classical language and its later forms or its offshoots.

EXPLANATION: Niccolo Manucci was an Italian doctor, traveller and writer who came to India in 1653 at the age of 17. His quest for employment made him travel all throughout India. After he moved to south india, he earned the reputation of Siddha Practitioner. He was fluent in several languages.

Explanation: It is one of the oldest, living and well documented medical tradition of the world. Yuthong Yonten Gonpo from Tibet is believed to be the Father of Sowa-Rigpa. The term means ‘Science of Healing’ and is commonly known as the Amchi system of medicine. Hence, statement 3 is correct. 
Gyud Zi is the fundamental text related to Sowa Rigpa The majority of theory and practice Sowa Rigpa is similar to Ayurveda. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. It is widely practised in Tibet, China, Himalayan regions of India, Nepal, Bhutan, Tuesday and Mongolia. Dharmashala in Himachal Pradesh and Ladakh region are the main centres for Sowa Rigpa Institutions in India. Hence, statement 2 is correct

Explanation) Sitagarha Hill is located 15 Km from Hazaribagh in Jharkhand and has been declared as a major Buddhist site after it was examined by Archaeological Survey of India.

Explanation: Statement I is correct: The Group of Monuments at Pattadakal was built under the patronage of Chalukya kings. The temples were built in Vesara style of temple architecture. It combined the features of both Nagara and Dravidian style of temple architecture. Its important features are :
1.    Emphasis on vimana and mandapa. 
2.    Open ambulatory passageway. 
3.    The pillars, doorways and the ceilings were decorated with intricate carvings. 
Statement 2 is correct: Virupaksha temple is one of the prominent features at Pattadakal. It was built by Queen Lokamahadevi, was originally called Lokeshwara. This temple is built in the southern Dravida style and is the largest in the enclosure. It has a massive gateway and several inscriptions. Virupaksha temple also served as a model for the Rashtrakuta ruler to carve out the great Kailasa at Ellora. 
Statement 3 is incorrect. The Group of Monuments at Pattadakal prominently has Hindu temples, but along with that it also has a Jaina sanctuary. Pattadakal also has a Jaina basadi of Rashtrakuta times with two beautiful elephants in front.

EXPLANATION : Features of the Nayaka school are 
1.    Prakarms or huge corridors in the portico, around the garbhagriha.
2.    There are also roofed ambulatory passageways. 
3.    The gopurams built under the Nayaka rulers were very huge. 
4.    The Meenakshi temple in Madurai has the tallest gopuram in the world. 
5.    The art of gopuram reached its climax under Nayaka style.
6.     The temple structure was filled with intricate carvings on the walls. 
7.    Meenakshi Temple of Madurai is one of the examples of this style of architecture.

Explanation:

• Latina, Phamsana and Valabhi style are three subtypes of nagara style based on the shikharas.
• Latina or rekha-prasad style of shikhara is square at base and has curvilinear walls. 
• Phamsana style had a broader base and shorter in height than latina type. Whereas Valabhi style have rectangular base with roof rising into vaulted chambers.

Explanation:The magnificent Shiva temple of Thanjavur, called the Rajarajeswara or Brihadeswara temple, was completed around 1009 by Rajaraja Chola, and is the largest and tallest of all Indian temples. It was built in the Dravidian style of architecture. 
Features of the temple include:
1.Pyramidal multi-storeyed vimana, topped by a monolithic shikliara which is an octagonal dome shaped stupika. 
2.For the first time two large gopuras/gopurams (gateway towers) with elaborate sculptures.
3. Huge Nandi-figures on the corners of the shikhara, with the kalasha above it. 
4.Hundreds of stucco figures decorate the vimana.
5. The boundary walls surrounding the sanctum have mythological narratives 

which are depicted through painted murals and sculptures.

Explanation: Yaksha and Yakshi were two of the important sculptures of the ancient period. They were related to all three religions Jainism, Hinduism, and Buddhism. 
Statement I is incorrect: During the Mauryan period, these monumental sculptures of Yaksha/Yakshini are mostly in the standing position. 
Statement 2 is correct: One of the distinguishing elements in all these images of Mauryan Period is their polished surface. The depiction of faces is in full round with pronounced cheeks and physiognomic detail. 
Statement 3 is correct: Yaksha and Yakshi were objects of worship of all the three religions - Jainism, Hinduism and Buddhism.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The Didarganj Yakshini is one of the finest examples of very early Indian stone statues. It used to be dated to the 3rd century BCE, as it has the fine Mauryan polish associated with mauryan art. The Didarganj Yakshi now is in the Bihar Museum in Patna.