Full Length Test - 7 (Polity and Science and Technology Special)

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1

Consider the following statements about Variant of concern and variant of interest (VOI): 
1. VOCs and VOIs are classified by respective countries based on degree of threat.
2. Variant of Interest is a variant with Specific genetic markers that are predicted to affect transmission, diagnostics, or immune response.
3. Variant of Concern is a variant for which there is evidence of an increase in transmissibility, more severe disease. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect:
The World Health Organization (WHO) has categorized Delta variant as a variant of concern (VOC). WHO classifies a variant as a VOC when it is associated with an increase in transmissibility or detrimental change in Covid-19 epidemiology; increase in virulence; or decrease in the effectiveness of public health measures or available diagnostics, vaccines, therapeutics. 
What makes the Delta variant a VOC?
An alteration in the bases of DNA causes a mutation, effectively changing the shape and behaviour of the virus. The Delta variant contains multiple mutations in the spike protein. At least four mutations are importan. 

Statement 2 and 3 are correct: 

Variant of Interest: A variant with specific genetic markers that have been associated with changes to receptor binding, reduced neutralization by antibodies generated against previous infection or vaccination, reduced efficacy of treatments, potential diagnostic impact, or predicted increase in transmissibility or disease severity. Possible attributes of a variant of interest: 
Specific genetic markers that are predicted to affect transmission, diagnostics, therapeutics, or immune escape  A variant of interest might require one or more appropriate public health actions, including enhanced sequence surveillance, enhanced laboratory characterization, or epidemiological investigations to assess how easily the virus spreads to others, the severity of disease, the efficacy of therapeutics and whether currently authorized vaccines offer protection.  Variant of Concern: A variant for which there is evidence of an increase in transmissibility, more severe disease (e.g., increased hospitalizations or deaths), significant reduction in neutralization by antibodies generated during previous infection or vaccination, reduced effectiveness of treatments or vaccines, or diagnostic detection failures. Possible attributes of a variant of concer Variant of High Consequence:  variant of high consequence has clear evidence that prevention measures or medical countermeasures (MCMs) have significantly reduced effectiveness relative to previously circulating variants. 

2

Which of the following mineral deposits/rocks are present in India?
1. Iridium
2. Nepheline Syenite
3. Palladium
4. Rhodium
5. Ruthenium
Select the correct answer code:

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

The high concentration of iridium in the geological section at Anjar, Kutch district, provides evidence for a massive meteoritic impact that caused the extinction of dinosaurs about 65 million years ago. A national geological monument exhibiting a unique rock called Nepheline Syenite in Ajmer district of Rajasthan. Baula-Nausahi, a 3-km-long belt, 170 km north east of Bhubaneswar, is the proven platinum group of elements (PGE) deposit in India. PGE comprises six greyish to silver white metals including platinum, palladium, iridium, rhodium, osmium and ruthenium.

3

The Directive Principles of State Policy provided in the constitution of India contains
1. Goals and objectives that a society should adopt
2. Certain rights that individuals should enjoy apart from the Fundamental Rights
3. Certain policies that the government should adopt 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

The phrase ‘Directive Principles of State Policy’ denotes the ideals that the State should keep in mind while formulating policies and enacting laws. These are the constitutional instructions or recommendations to the State in legislative, executive and administrative matters. Hence, the Goals and objectives of DPSP that a State should keep in mind while formulating policies and enacting laws.

4

India has signed Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement (ECTA) with which of the following country?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement (ECTA) that was signed by India with the previous Australian administration under Prime Minister Scott Morrison.

5

Which of the following is/are the justiciable rights provided under the constitution of India?
1. Right to maternity relief
2. Right to information
3. Right to free legal aid to all
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article39 A) and To make provision for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief (Article 42) are part of Directive principles of the state policy. They are non-justiciable in nature, these principles are fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws.

6

Consider the following statements.
1. According to Election Commission (Conditions of Service of Election Commissioners and Transaction of Business) Act of 1991, the term of a Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners is six years or till the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
2. Since 2004, the Election Commissioners are selected in such a way that they complete their full term.
3. Article 324 states that, the Chief Election Commissioner is removed through impeachment. 

Select the correct statements from above using the codes given below:

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Successive governments, particularly after 2004, have “picked” people whom it knew would “never ever” get close to the full term of six years prescribed under the Election Commission (Conditions of Service of Election Commissioners and Transaction of Business) Act of 1991. Section 4 of the 1991 Act says the term of a CEC and Election Commissioners is six years or till the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
Protections under Article 324, like removal through impeachment, available under the Constitution to the CECs.

7

Which one of the following statements is correct with reference to the right to education under the Article 21A of the Indian Constitution?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

The primary education in India is divided into two parts, namely Lower Primary (Class I-IV) and Upper Primary (Middle school, Class V-VIII). The Indian government lays emphasis on primary education (Class I-VIII) also referred to as elementary education, to children aged 6 to 14 years old. Article 21 A declares that the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such a manner as the State may determine. Thus, this provision makes only elementary education a Fundamental Right and not higher or professional education

8

Consider the following statements regarding Gilt Funds.
1. Gilt Funds are mutual funds that invest only in government securities.
2. These funds are invested only for short duration, say less than 91 days.
3. These are impacted by interest rate movements. 

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Gilt Funds are mutual funds that invest only in government securities. Since gilt funds invest only in government bonds, investors are protected from credit risk. The instruments where these funds invest have sovereign guarantee. Hence no default risk is associated with these instruments. These funds can have different maturity profiles. Some may be short term while others are medium term or long term. Like any other bond funds, these funds too have interest rate risk ingrained in them. They are impacted by interest rate movements.

9

Consider the following statements regarding right against exploitation under the Indian Constitution:
1. The right under Article 23 is available to both citizens and non-citizens
2. Article 24 does not prohibit the employment of children below the age of 14 years in any harmless or innocent work.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Article 23 prohibits traffic in human beings, begar (forced labour) and other similar forms of forced labour. Any contravention of this provision shall be an offence punishable in accordance with law. This right is available to both citizens and non-citizens. It protects the individual not only against the State but also against private persons.So, statement 1 is correct. Article 24 prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 years in any factory, mine or other hazardous activities like construction work or railway. But it does not prohibit their employment in any harmless or innocent work. So, statement 2 is correct

10

Consider the following statements regarding the significance of mangroves.
1. Mangrove forests consists of trees and shrub and live in intertidal water in coastal areas.
2. They also support a rich food web.
3. Mangrove forests can both aid in removal of carbon from the atmosphere and prevent the release of the same upon their destruction. 
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Mangroves have been the focus of conservationists for years and it is difficult to overstate their importance in the global climate context. Mangrove forests — consisting of trees and shrub that live in intertidal water in coastal areas — host diverse marine life. They also support a rich food web, with molluscs and algae-filled substrate acting as a breeding ground for small fish, mud crabs and shrimps, thus providing a livelihood to local artisanal fishers. Equally importantly, they act as effective carbon stores, holding up to four times the amount of carbon as other forested ecosystems. Mangrove forests capture vast amounts of carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and their preservation can both aid in removal of carbon from the atmosphere and prevent the release of the same upon their destruction.

11

A democratic polity essentially signifies which of the following?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

A democratic polity, as stipulated in the Preamble, is based on the doctrine of popular sovereignty, that is, possession of supreme power by the people. Democracy is of two types— direct and indirect.So, option (c) is correct.

12

Consider the following statements regarding Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005.
1. The Act provides a definition of “domestic violence” for the first time in Indian law.
2. The Act recognises domestic abuse as a punishable offence.
3. It is both a civil and criminal law, meant for protection orders and criminal enforcement. 
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

      What is Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act 2005?

  • It is an act to provide for more effective protection of the rights of Women guaranteed under the Constitution who are victims of violence of any kind occurring within the family and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.
  • It is the first significant attempt in India to recognise domestic abuse as a punishable offence, to extend its provisions to those in live-in relationships, and to provide for emergency relief for the victims, in addition to legal recourse.
  • The Act provides a definition of “domestic violence” for the first time in Indian law, with this definition being broad and including not only physical violence, but also other forms of violence such as emotional/verbal, sexual, and economic abuse.
  • It is a civil law meant primarily for protection orders, rather than criminal enforcement.
13

Which of the following statements is/are correct with reference to the right to freedom of religion under the Indian Constitution?
1. Article 25 covers both religious beliefs and religious practices
2. Article 25 guarantees collective freedom of religion, while Article 26 protects rights of individuals
3. Article 27 does not prohibit the state to collect taxes for the promotion or maintenance of all religions 

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Article 25 guarantees rights of individuals, while Article 26 guarantees rights of religious denominations or their sections. In other words, Article 26protects collective freedom of religion. Like the rights under Article 25, the rights under Article 26 are also subject to public order, morality and health but not subject to other provisions relating to the Fundamental Rights. So, statement 2 is not correct.

14

The Supreme Court’s case of ‘Ramkripal vs State of Madhya Pradesh,’ recently in news, is related to

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Under the Indian Penal Code, outraging the modesty of a woman is a punishable offence. Offences that are less severe in nature, fall under the purview of Section 509 of the IPC, which deals with “word, gesture or act intended to insult the modesty of a woman”. The main difference between Sections 509 and 354 IPC is that the latter goes beyond the act of outraging the modesty of a woman and involves clear threat of physical harm or assault to the woman. The Supreme Court in 2007, in the case of ‘Ramkripal vs State of Madhya Pradesh’, noted that although the IPC does not define what constitutes an outrage to female modesty, the “essence of a woman’s modesty is her sex”.

15

Consider the following statements
1. Constitution empowers the Parliament and state legislatures to restrict or abrogate the fundamental rights of the members of armed forces
2. A law enacted under Article 33 can also exclude the court martial from the writ jurisdiction of both the Supreme Court and the high courts. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

The Parliament shall have (and the legislature of a state shall not have) the power to restrict or abrogate the application of fundamental rights to members of armed forces, police forces, etc. (Article 33). Any such law made by Parliament cannot be challenged in any court on the ground of contravention of any of the fundamental rights. So, statement 1 is not correct.

16

Consider the following statements regarding Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA):
1. Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA) is a statutorybody of Ministry of Women & Child Development.

2. CARA is designated as the Central Authority to deal with inter-country adoptions in accordance with the provisions of the Hague Convention on Inter-country Adoption, 1993.

3. CARA does not deal with adoption of orphan, abandoned and surrendered children. 

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA) is a statutory body of Ministry of Women & Child Development, Government of India. It functions as the nodal body for adoption of Indian children and is mandated to monitor and regulate in-country and inter-country adoptions. CARA is designated as the Central Authority to deal with inter- country adoptions in accordance with the provisions of the Hague Convention on Inter-country Adoption, 1993, ratified by Government of India in 2003. CARA primarily deals with adoption of orphan, abandoned and surrendered children through its associated /recognised adoption agencies.

17

Consider the following statements:

1. All the rights provided outside of the part III of the constitution of India are non-justiciable in nature

2. Part III of the constitution of India contains more political rights than the social and economic rights 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Part III of the constitution of India contains mainly political rights. It makes no provision for important social and economic rights like right to social security, right to work, right to employment, right to rest and leisure and soon. Directive Principles of State Policy aim to create social and economic conditions under which the citizens can lead a good life. They also aim to establish social and economic democracy through a welfare state.

18

The term ‘Pineapple Express,’ recently seen in news, is related to

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Forecasters said the rain arriving in California is being caused by a “true Pineapple Express” — a specific example of a common atmospheric phenomenon that resembles a conveyor belt for moisture. Recently California and other parts of the West Coast have been hit with a series of what meteorologists call atmospheric rivers — long, narrow regions in the atmosphere that transport most of the water vapor outside the tropics.
Is ‘Pineapple Express’ a common phenomenon?
These rivers in the sky occur often on the West Coast but can happen in other locations, including the eastern United States, where they often channel moisture from the Caribbean. And they carry a lot of moisture — enough water vapor to equal or sometimes exceed the average flow of the Mississippi River at the point where it flows into the Gulf of Mexico. When this moisture begins to interact with land, it can fall as rain or snow. Often, as is the case lately in California, the precipitation is abundant because these atmospheric rivers provide a continuous flow of moisture. Although atmospheric rivers come in different shapes and sizes, for one to be a “true Pineapple Express,” location matters. The tail end, where the moisture is pulled into the atmosphere, must start near Hawaii. Then the river must stretch continuously through the atmosphere to the U.S. West Coast.

19

Which one of the following is not a Gandhian Principle provided in the Directive Principles of State Policy under the Constitution of India?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

To prohibit the slaughter of cows, calves and other milch and draught cattle and to improve their breeds (Article 48).

20

Which of the following explains why we should move away from coal-based power generation?

  1. There are several occupational hazards associated with coal mining like Pneumoconiosis and asthma. Coal emits nearly twice as much carbon dioxide as natural gas.
  2. Opencast mining and underground mining of coal affect the vegetation pattern.
  3. Combusting coal also leaves behind partially burnt carbon particles that feed pollution and trigger respiratory disorders. 
    Select the correct answer code:

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Coal emits nearly twice as much carbon dioxide as natural gas and about 60% more than oil, on a kilogram comparison having a greater role in global warming. Combusting coal also leaves behind partially burnt carbon particles that feed pollution and trigger respiratory disorders. Environmental issues associated with Coal Mining that is air pollution, water pollution, soil pollution etc. Opencast mining and underground mining of coal affect the vegetation pattern. Several occupational hazards are associated with coal mining: Pneumoconiosis (by inhaling coal dust), allergies and asthma, noise hazard etc.

21

Which of the following statements is/are correct with reference to the reorganization of states under the provisions of the Constitution?

  1. No Bill for the purposes can be introduced except on the recommendation of the President
  2. Parliament can increase the area of any state but cannot reduce it
  3. A bill for the purpose of reorganization of states can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Article 3 lays down two conditions in this regard: one, a bill can be introduced in the Parliament only with the prior recommendation of the President; and two, before recommending the bill, the President has to refer the same to the state legislature concerned for expressing its views within a specified period.

22

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Drought Management in India’
1. Drought is generally considered as a deficiency in rainfall /precipitation over an extended period, usually a season or more.

2. Drought does not fall within the definition of “disaster” in the Disaster Management Act, 2005.

3. State Government is the final authority when it comes to declaring a region as drought affected. 

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Drought is generally considered as a deficiency in rainfall /precipitation over an extended period, usually a season or more, resulting in a water shortage causing adverse impacts on vegetation, animals, and/or people. There is no single, legally accepted definition of drought in India. Some states resort to their own definitions of drought. State Government is the final authority when it comes to declaring a region as drought affected. The Supreme Court of India in its verdict in the matter of Swaraj Abhiyan Vs Union of India stated that drought would certainly fall within the definition of “disaster” as defined under Section 2(d) of the Disaster Management (DM) Act, 2005.

23

Consider the following statements with reference to the Indian Constitution

  1. A Foreign territory acquired by India can be admitted to India only as a union territory
  2. A territory separated from an existing state can be reorganized into a full-fledged new state 
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Article 2 empowers the Parliament to ‘admit into the Union of India, or establish, new states on such terms and conditions as it thinks fit’. Thus, Article 2 grants two powers to the Parliament: (a) the power to admit into the Union of India new states; and (b) the power to establish new states. The first refers to the admission of states which are already in existence while the second refers to the establishment of states which were not in existence before. Notably, Article 2 relates to the admission or establishment of new states that are not part of the Union of India (includes foreign territories). So, statement 1 is not correct.

24

Consider the following statements.

  1. For Measles, the Symptoms appear around 10 to 14 days after exposure to the virus.
  2. The WHO recommends that measles vaccine must be given in combination like measles-rubella (MR) or measles-mumps-rubella (MMR).
  3. In India the Universal Immunisation Programme covers vaccination for measles. 
    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Symptoms appear around 10 to 14 days after exposure to the virus. The main symptoms are fever, dry cough, running nose, sore throat and rash. Young children, who don’t receive measles immunization, are at highest risks of being exposed to measles and its complications, including death. The WHO recommends immunization for all children with two doses of measles vaccine, either alone, or in a measles-rubella (MR) or measles-mumps-rubella (MMR) combination. As per the guidance of National Health Mission, in India, measles vaccination is given under the Universal Immunisation Programme at 9-12 months of age and the second dose at 16-24 months of age.

25

Which of the following principles mentioned in the Preamble aims at overcoming hindrances to national integration like communalism, casteism, regionalism, etc.?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Fraternity means a sense of brotherhood. The Constitution promotes this feeling of fraternity by the system of single citizenship. The Preamble declares that fraternity has to assure two things—the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the nation. The phrase ‘unity and integrity of the nation’ embraces both the psychological and territorial dimensions of national integration. It aims at overcoming hindrances to national integration like communalism, regionalism, casteism, linguism, secessionism and so on.

26

Consider the following statements regarding United States’ Currency Monitoring List.

  1. It is a report on Macroeconomic and Foreign Exchange Policies of Major Trading Partners of the United States.
  2. The report reviews the currency practices and policies of the US’ trading partners.
  3. India has never been on the list in the last five years. 
    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

The US Department of Treasury recently delivered its semi-annual Report to Congress on ‘Macroeconomic and Foreign Exchange Policies of Major Trading Partners of the United States’. The report reviews the policies of the US’ trading partners during the last four quarters ending in June 2022. India and four other countries were removed from the Monitoring List as they now only met one of the three criteria for two consecutive reports. India has been on the list for about two years.

27

Consider following statements with reference to the Schedules of Indian constitution

  1. Any provisions of the schedules of the Constitution of India can be amended by the simple majority of the Parliament
  2. One of the first mentions of Schedules was made in the Government of India Act, 1935 
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

The schedules of the constitution consist of many provisions like provisions relating to the administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes or provisions relating to the administration of tribal areas, division of powers between the Union and the States, etc., It may affect a part of or whole of India. Hence, it cannot be amended by the simple majority of the Parliament. It may be amended according to the article 368. So, statement 1 is not correct.

28

Consider the following statements regarding Ulgulan movement:


1. The Ulgulan movement was started by Birsa Munda, who encouraged the tribals to refuse following colonial laws and paying rent.

2. It involved the use of weapons and guerrilla warfare to drive out foreigners.

 Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

What was the Ulgulan movement?
The Ulgulan movement of 1899 also involved the use of weapons and guerrilla warfare to drive out foreigners. Munda encouraged the tribals to refuse to follow colonial laws and pay rent.  He encouraged changes in the social sphere too, challenging religious practices to fight against superstition, and became known as ‘Bhagwan’ (God) and ‘Dharati Aba’ (Father of the earth) by his followers. But the British were soon able to halt the movement. On March 3, 1900, Munda was arrested by the British police while he was sleeping with his tribal guerilla army at Jamkopai forest in Chakradharpur.

29

Consider the following statements with reference to the Article 20 of the Indian Constitution

  1. The immunity under the Article extends only against punishment by courts for a criminal offence under an ex-post-facto law
  2. No person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself
  3. Guarantee against double jeopardy under the Article also applicable to the departmental proceedings 

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

The protection against double jeopardy is available only in proceedings before a court of law or a judicial tribunal. In other words, it is not available in proceedings before departmental or administrative authorities as they are not of judicial nature. So, statement 3 is not correct.

30

The concept of ‘fall-back liability’ sometimes seen in news is related to

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

E-commerce Rules define fall-back liability as ‘the liability of the marketplace e-commerce entity where a seller registered with such entity fails to deliver the goods or services ordered by a consumer due to negligent conduct, omission or commission of any act by such seller in fulfilling the duties and liabilities in the manner as prescribed by the marketplace e-commerce entity which causes loss to the consumer.

31

Which among the following acts relaxed the central control over the provinces by demarcating and separating the central and provincial subjects?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Government of India Act of 1919relaxed the central control over the provinces by demarcating and separating the central and provincial subjects. The central and provincial legislatures were authorised to make laws on their respective list of subjects. However, the structure of government continued to be centralised and unitary.

32

A Partial Protection against Double Jeopardy is a

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

A partial protection against double jeopardy is a Fundamental Right guaranteed under Article 20 (2) of the Constitution of India, which states “No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once”.

33

With reference to the Interim government formed in 1946, consider the following statements:

  1. The members of the viceroy executive council were the members of the interim government.
  2. Jawaharlal Nehru held the portfolio of external affairs and Common wealth relations.
  3. Sardar Vallabhbhai patel was designated the Vice- president of the council. 

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

The senior Congress leader Vallabhai Patel held the second-most powerful position in the Council, heading the Department of Home Affairs, Department of Information and Broadcasting. So, statement 3 is not correct.

34

Consider the following statements.

  1. Justice G. Rohini Commission’s report is related to the issue of sub-categorization of OBCs.
  2. Reservation in Indian law is a form of affirmative action whereby a percentage of seats are reserved in the public sector units, union and state government departments and religious/ linguistic minority educational institutions for the socially and educationally backward communities.

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:
  • Reservation in Indian law is a form of affirmative action whereby a percentage of seats are reserved in the public sector units, union and state civil services, union and state government departments and in all public and private educational institutions, except in the religious/ linguistic minority educational institutions, for the socially and educationally backward communities who are inadequately represented in these services and institutions.
  •  Justice G. Rohini Committee was set up to examine the possibility of creating categories within OBCs for the reservation to ensure “equitable distribution” of representation among all OBC communities. Its objectives include working out a mechanism, criteria, norm and parameters through a scientific approach for sub-categorisation within the OBCs and identifying the respective castes or communities or sub-castes or synonyms in the Central List of OBCs and classifying them into their respective sub-categories. Part XVI deals with reservation of SC and ST in Central and State legislatures. 
  • Article 15(4) and 16(4) of the Constitution enabled the State and Central Governments to reserve seats in government services for the members of the SC and ST.
35

Consider the following statements regarding Constituent assembly:

  1. M.N Roy was the first Indian to put forward the idea of a Constituent assembly.
  2. The official demand for a Constituent assembly was made by Indian national congress at the Lahore session of 1929.
  3. The demand for a Constituent assembly was for the first time accepted by British in the August offer of 1940. 

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

In 1935, the Indian National Congress (INC), for the first time, officially demanded a Constituent Assembly to frame the Constitution of India. In 1938, Jawaharlal Nehru, on behalf the INC declared that ‘the Constitution of free India must be framed, without outside interference, by a Constituent Assembly elected on the basis of adult franchise’. So, statement 2 is not correct.

36

Consider the following statements regarding the observations made by Supreme Court with respect to Right to privacy.

  1. Right to privacy is as sacrosanct as human existence and is inalienable to human dignity and autonomy.
  2. This is an absolute right.
  3. Any surveillance done on an individual by the state is an infringement of that person’s right to privacy.
  4. Any violation of right to privacy by the state in national interest, has to follow procedures established by the law. 

    Which of the above statement is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

The Court, pointing to its own judgment in K S Puttaswamy, has said that “right to privacy is as sacrosanct as human existence and is inalienable to human dignity and autonomy”. While agreeing that it is not an absolute right, the Court has said any restrictions “must necessarily pass constitutional scrutiny”. Any surveillance or snooping done on an individual by the state or any outside agency is an infringement of that person’s right to privacy. Hence, any violation of that right by the state, even in national interest, has to follow procedures established by the law.

37

In the context of recent changes made by Election commission in the Postal ballot system, consider the following statements:

  1. The Person with disabilities and elderly above 80 years were made eligible to vote through postal ballot.
  2. Under postal ballot system, Electronically Transmitted Postal Ballot Papers (ETPB) are distributed to electors and returned electronically.
  3. Service voters have the option of either voting through postal ballot or through a proxy voter. 

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Electronically Transmitted Postal Ballot System (ETPBS) is the one-way electronic transmission of the Postal ballots to the Service Voters. The Service Voter then cast their vote and sends it to the respective returning officer via Post. The complete process is secured by way of multiple checks and transmission protocol to ensure safe transmission. This application was launched on 21st Oct 2016. So, Statement 2 is not correct

38

Consider the following statements regarding Landraces.

  1. Landraces refer to naturally occurring variants of commonly cultivated crops.
  2. These are improved variants of commercially grown crops, which are developed by selective breeding or through genetic engineering.
  3. kalbhat, a scented rice is an example of landrace variant. 

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Landraces refer to naturally occurring variants of commonly cultivated crops. These are as opposed to commercially grown crops, which are developed by selective breeding (hybrids) or through genetic engineering to express a certain trait over others. Biodiversity allows a natural mechanism for crops to develop traits to face challenging situations. However, given the large-scale human interference in crop selection, that ability is now lost in most commercially crops Naturally occurring landraces have a large pool of still untapped genetic material, which can provide solutions. Genetic diversity is nature’s survival mechanism. The wider the gene pool, the more the chance of developing a trait that can help in surviving extreme climate events. kalbhat, a unique landrace of scented rice. Over the years, this variant had almost vanished from cultivators’ fields as hybrid variants became popular. It has better climate resilience than popularly grown rice and can withstand flood or drought better.

39

Which of the following is the most suitable argument to conclude that the authority of the Constitution is higher than that of the Parliament?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

In the Indian Constitution for example, it is specified that in most instances, Parliament gets to decide laws and policies and that Parliament itself be organised in a particular manner. Before identifying what the law in any given society is, you have to identify who has the authority to enact it. If Parliament has the authority to enact laws, there must be a law that bestows this authority on Parliament in the first place. This is the function of the constitution. It is an authority that constitutes the government in the first place. The second function of a constitution is to specify who has the power to make decisions in a society. It decides how the government will be constituted.

40

Consider the following statements regarding Currency Swap Agreement.

  1. A currency swap is a transaction in which two parties exchange an equivalent amount of money with each other but in different currencies.
  2. Currency swap agreements between countries help in reducing its reliance on the International Monetary Fund.
  3. Currency swap agreement will help a country tide over its foreign exchange crisis. 

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:
  • A currency swap is a transaction in which two parties exchange an equivalent amount of money with each other but in different currencies. The parties are essentially loaning each other money and will repay the amounts at a specified date and exchange rate. The purpose could be to hedge exposure to exchange-rate risk, to speculate on the direction of a currency, or to reduce the cost of borrowing in a foreign currency. 
  • Currency swap agreements between countries help in reducing their reliance on the International Monetary Fund.
41

Arrange the following states in chronological order of their formation:

  1. Himachal Pradesh
  2. Telangana
  3. Goa
  4. Maharashtra
    Select the correct answer from the codes:

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

In 1960, the bilingual state of Bombay was divided into two separate states—Maharashtra for Marathi-speaking people and Gujarat for Gujarati-speaking people. Gujarat was established as the 15thstate of the Indian Union. In 1971, the union territory of Himachal Pradesh was elevated to the status of a state (18th state of the Indian Union). In 1987, three new States of Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh and Goa came into being as the 23rd, 24thand 25th states of the Indian Union respectively. The State of Goa was created by separating the territory of Goa from the Union Territory of Goa, Daman and Diu. In 2014, the new state of Telangana came into existence as the29th state of the Indian Union. It was carved out of the territories of Andhra Pradesh.

42

Consider the following statements regarding Indo-Pacific Partnership for Maritime Domain Awareness (IPMDA).

  1. It is a satellite-based maritime security system aiming for peace, stability, and prosperity in the Indo-Pacific region.
  2. IPMDA initiative was launched under UNCLOS.
  3. The initiative will allow tracking of dark shipping and other tactical activities in the Indo-Pacific region. 

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Major maritime initiative launched by QUAD leaders to check illegal fishing in the Indo-Pacific region and enhance the security apparatus of the region. ‘Indo-Pacific Partnership for Maritime Domain Awareness’ (IPMDA) will offer an integrated and cost-effective maritime domain and transform the ability of partners in the Pacific Islands, Southeast Asia, and the Indian Ocean region to fully monitor the waters on their shores. The IPMDA is said to be a satellite-based maritime security system aiming for a “fundamental requirement for peace, stability, and prosperity” in the Indo-Pacific region. The initiative will integrate three critical regions of the Pacific Islands – Southeast Asia, and the Indian Ocean region – and allow tracking of “dark shipping” and other “tactical activities”. “Dark ships” are vessels with their Automatic Identification System (AIS) – a transponder system – switched off so as not to be detectable. The maritime system will also improve the partners’ ability to respond to climate and humanitarian events and protect their fisheries – a vital need for many Indo-Pacific economies.

43

Consider the following statements:

  1. In India, a naturalized citizen is eligible for the office of the President.
  2. In India, foreigners cannot vote in elections to Lok Sabha and state legislature, unlike Non Resident Indians, who are eligible to vote. 

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

In India both a citizen by birth as well as a naturalised citizen is eligible for the office of President while in USA, only a citizen by birth and not a naturalised citizen is eligible for the office of President.

44

Consider the following statements.

  1. In 2021-22, vegetable oil accounted for more than 50% of India’s total Agricultural imports in terms of value.
  2. In the last one-decade India had surplus in Agricultural trade in terms of value.
  3. In 2021-22, Basmati rice constituted India’s top Agricultural export item in terms of value. 

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Table 1 captures trends in India’s farm products exports over the past decade. The surplus in agricultural trade matters because this is one sector, apart from software services, where India has some comparative advantage.
Table 2 shows that almost 60% of India’s total agri imports is accounted for by a single commodity: vegetable oils.

45

Consider the following statements:

  1. Unlike in Britain, Indian Parliament is not a sovereign body.
  2. Unlike in USA, Indian judiciary is integrated.
  3. Unlike USA, Indian federation is not the result of an agreement by the states. 

    Which of the statements is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

The Indian Constitution establishes a judicial system that is integrated as well as independent. The Supreme Court stands at the top of the integrated judicial system in the country. Below it, there are high courts at the state level. Under a high court, there is a hierarchy of subordinate courts, that is, district courts and other lower courts. This single system of courts enforces both the central laws as well as the state laws, unlike in USA, where the federal laws are enforced by the federal judiciary and the state laws are enforced by the state judiciary.

46

Consider the following statements regarding North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO):

  1. The North Atlantic Treaty Organisation came into being before World War I.
  2. After the collapse of USSR in 1991, several eastern European nations joined NATO.
  3. NATO works on a collective defense principle and is ‘one-for-all, all-for-one’ nature of treaty. 

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

The North Atlantic Treaty Organisation came into being after World War II as a counter to the Soviet Union’s possible expansion attempts in Europe. Then-US President Harry S Truman signed the 12-member treaty on April 4, 1949. After the collapse of USSR in 1991, several eastern European nations previously members of the Soviet Union joined NATO. The NATO works on a collective defense principle and routinely undertakes exercises to strengthen their territorial, naval, and air forces. NATO members also arm themselves to face evolving methods of attacks like cybercrimes, and have participated in military operations in Bosnia and Herzegovina, Kosova, Afghanistan, Iraq, Libya and Syria, among others. Article 4 of the treaty mandates that the member nations consult each other when faced with threat. “The Parties will consult together whenever, in the opinion of any of them, the territorial integrity, political independence or security of any of the Parties is threatened,” it reads. Meanwhile, Article 5 spells out the ‘one-for-all, all-for-one’ nature of the treaty.

47

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Parliament can prescribe residence within a state or union territory as a condition for certain employments.
  2. The Constitution does not prohibit discrimination on grounds of residence. 
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

The Parliament (under Article 16) can prescribe residence within a state or union territory as a condition for certain employments or appointments in that state or union territory, or local authority or other authority within that state or union territory. As the Public Employment (Requirement as to Residence) Act of 1957 expired in 1974, there is no such provision for any state except Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.

48

Consider the following statements regarding Patan Patola:

  1. Patan Patola is an ancient art of double ikat woven in pure silk.
  2. It has its origins in an intricate technique of dyeing, known as ‘bandhani’.
  3. It is mainly made in Rajasthan.

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

What is Patan Patola
The ancient art of double ikat or Patola woven in pure silk dates back to the 11th century. The Patola fabrics bear an equal intensity of colours and design on both sides. This peculiar quality has its origins in an intricate and difficult technique of dyeing or knot dyeing, known as ‘bandhani’, on the warp and weft separately before weaving. One of the major practitioners of the dwindling art form is the Salvi family from North Gujarat.

The Salvis
The last surviving family into Patola weaving is the Salvi family in Patan.
Patola is woven on primitive hand-operated harness looms made out of rosewood and bamboo strips. The loom lies on a slant. The other commonly worn Patola is the Rajkot Patola, woven on a flat loom.

49

Which of the following statements regarding fundamental duties is/are correct?

  1. They imply that citizens are not mere spectators but active participants in the realization of national goals.
  2. They help in determining the constitutional validity of a law.
  3. They are enforceable by court of law.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given:

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

They are enforceable by law of the parliament. Hence, the Parliament can provide for the imposition of appropriate penalty or punishment for failure to fulfil any of them.

50

Consider the following statements.

  1. Indian Wild Ass Sanctuary located in the Little Rann of Kutch in the Gujarat is one of the last places on earth where the Indian Wild Ass can be spotted.
  2. Gujarat is the not the only abode of both Asiatic lions and Indian wild asses. 

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Gujarat, the world’s only abode of Asiatic lions, is also the sole home of Indian wild asses. Indian Wild Ass Sanctuary is one of the last places on earth where the Indian Wild Ass can be spotted.

51

Consider the following statements:

  1. The state can make provisions for the advancement of socially and educationally backward classes even in unaided private educational institutions.
  2. The state cannot make provisions for the advancement of socially and educationally backward classes in minority educational institutions. 

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

The state is empowered to make any special provision for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for the scheduled castes or the scheduled tribes regarding their admission to educational institutions, including private educational institutions, whether aided or unaided by the state, except the minority educational institutions.

52

In India, fishing cats are mainly found in

  1. Foothills of the Himalayas
  2. Western Ghats
  3. Mangrove forests of the Sundarbans 

    Select the correct answer code:

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Wetlands are the favourite habitats of the fishing cat. In India, fishing cats are mainly found in the mangrove forests of the Sundarbans, on the foothills of the Himalayas along the Ganga and Brahmaputra river valleys and in the Western Ghats.

53

Which of the following words of the preamble describe the nature of Indian state?

  1. Sovereign
  2. Secular
  3. Liberty
  4. Democratic
  5. Fraternity

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

      The Preamble reveals four ingredients or components: 1. Source of authority of the Constitution: The Preamble states that the Constitution derives its authority from the people of India.

  • Nature of Indian State: It declares India to be of a sovereign, socialist, secular democratic and republican polity.
  • Objectives of the Constitution: It specifies justice, liberty, equality and fraternity as the objectives.
  • Date of adoption of the Constitution: It stipulates November 26, 1949 as the date.
54

Which of the following missions have the objective to ensure the return of humans to moon?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

The Artemis program is a robotic and human Moon exploration program led by the United States’ National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) along with three partner agencies: European Space Agency (ESA), Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA), and Canadian Space Agency (CSA). The Artemis program intends to re- establish a human presence on the Moon for the first time since the Apollo 17 mission in 1972.

55

Which of the following commissions/Committee is/are related to states reorganization in India?

  1. Dhar commission
  2. JVP commission
  3. Balwant Rai Mehta committee
  4. Fazl Ali commission

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Dhar commission
JVP commission
Fazl Ali commission
 

56

Consider the following statements regarding Vostro accounts.

  1. A Vostro account is an account that a domestic bank holds for a foreign bank in the domestic bank’s currency.
  2. For an Indian entity, In case of trade with a foreign country, payments in rupee for the export and import of goods will go to these Vostro accounts.
  3. The objective behind permitting Vostro accounts is to promote growth of global trade with emphasis on exports from India and to support the interest of the global trading community.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

On November 15, the government announced that nine special Vostro accounts have been opened with two Indian banks after permission from the RBI to facilitate trade in rupee in the wake of sanctions on Russia by the US and European countries.
A Vostro account is an account that a domestic bank holds for a foreign bank in the domestic bank’s currency — which, in the case of India, is the rupee. The RBI allowed nine such accounts, including IndusInd Bank and Uco Bank.
In the case of trade with Russia, payments in rupee for the export and import of goods will go to these Vostro accounts. The owners and beneficiaries of this money will be the exporters and importers in both the countries. The banks will keep the record of money transferred.
What is a Nostro account?
Two kinds of accounts, Vostro and Nostro, are often mentioned together. Both Vostro and Nostro are technically the same type of account, with the difference being who opens the account and where.
So, if an Indian bank like the SBI wants to open an account in the United States, it will get in touch with a bank in the US, which will open a Nostro account and accept payments for SBI in dollars.
The account opened by the Indian bank in the US will be a Nostro account for the Indian bank, while for the US bank, the account will be considered a Vostro account. What led to creation of the Vostro accounts?
On July 11, the RBI put in place a mechanism to settle international trade in rupees “in order to promote growth of global trade with emphasis on exports from India and to support the increasing interest of the global trading community in the rupee”.

57

Which of the following terms means existence of more than one level of government in the country?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Federalism is a mixed or compound mode of government that combines a general government (the central or "federal" government) with regional governments (provincial, state, cantonal, territorial or other sub-unit governments) in a single political system.

58

The Agricultural Market Information System (AMIS) is an inter-agency platform to enhance food market transparency and encourage international policy coordination in times of crisis, was setup by

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

The Agricultural Market Information System (AMIS) is an inter-agency platform to enhance food market transparency and policy response for food security. It was launched in 2011 by the G20 Ministers of Agriculture following the global food price hikes in 2007/08 and 2010. Bringing together the principal trading countries of agricultural commodities, AMIS assesses global food supplies (focusing on wheat, maize, rice and soybeans) and provides a platform to coordinate policy action in times of market uncertainty.

59

The third schedule of the Indian constitution contains forms of oaths or affirmations for certain offices. Which of the following Constitutional offices are mentioned there?

  1. Office of president.
  2. The Union ministers
  3. The judges of Supreme court
  4. The CAG of India
  5. Office of Governor.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:
  1. The third schedule of the Indian constitution contains forms of oaths or affirmations for
  2. The Union ministers
  3. The candidates for election to the Parliament
  4. The members of Parliament
  5. The judges of the Supreme Court
  6. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
  7. The state ministers
  8. The candidates for election to the state legislature
  9. The members of the state legislature
  10. The judges of the High Courts
60

Consider the following statements.

  1. Singapore has the biggest Foreign portfolio investment(FPI) in India.
  2. The sustained fall in US bond yields can lead to increase in Foreign portfolio investments(FPI) in India.
  3. Pull-out of Foreign portfolio investment from India is a major concern for the Indian stock market and not for Reserve Bank of India. 

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

The sustained fall in US bond yields is a positive for emerging markets like India. Since inflation in the US is showing a moderating trend, dollar and US bond yields are declining. This means FPIs are likely to buy more in the coming days. The pullout by FPIs was a major concern for policy makers and the central bank as the rupee came under pressure, and the RBI was forced to use dollars from its forex kitty to stabilise the currency. If FPIs continue their investments in Indian markets — which is likely if US inflation comes down further and the Fed slows its rate hikes — it will bring more confidence among market players. Singapore recently surpassed Mauritius to become the second biggest FPI investor in India. The US continues to be on top.

61

Article 1 of the Indian constitution describes India as a ‘union of states’. What is/are the implications of this expression?

  1. Indian federation is not a result of agreement among the states.
  2. States do not have Territorial Integrity.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

According to Dr B R Ambedkar, the phrase ‘Union of States’ has been preferred to ‘Federation of States’ for two reasons: one, the Indian Federation is not the result of an agreement among the states like the American Federation; and two, the states have no right to secede from the federation. The federation is an Union because it is indestructible. The country is an integral whole and divided into different states only for the convenience of administration.

62

Consider the following statements.

  1. Hydrogen in its pure form is the most abundant element available on Earth.
  2. Since Hydrogen has higher energy density than that of diesel, it makes it a rich source of energy. 

    Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Hydrogen is the most abundant element on the planet, but rarely in its pure form which is how we need it. It has an energy density almost three times that of diesel. This phenomenon makes it a rich source of energy, but the challenge is to compress or liquify the LH2 (liquid hydrogen);

63

Consider the following statements:

  1. The fundamental right against exploitation also mandates the State to impose compulsory service for public purposes.
  2. When imposing such service, the state can make discriminations on grounds of gender. 

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

However, in imposing such service, the State is not permitted to make any discrimination on grounds only of religion, race, caste or class not gender.So, statement 2 is correct.

64

Consider the following statements.

  1. In a floating exchange rate system, market forces determine the value of a currency.
  2. The demand for rupees in the forex market depends on foreign demand for Indian exports.
  3. Currency appreciation encourages a country’s export activity as its products and services become cheaper to buy. 

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

In the forex market, the supply of rupees is determined by the demand for imports and various foreign assets. So, if there is high demand to import oil, it can lead to an increase in the supply of rupees in the forex market and cause the rupee’s value to drop. The demand for rupees in the forex market, on the other hand, depends on foreign demand for Indian exports and other domestic assets. So, for instance, when there is great enthusiasm among foreign investors to invest in India, it can lead to an increase in the supply of dollars in the forex market which in turn causes the rupee’s value to rise against the dollar.
Appreciation Vs Depreciation:
In a floating exchange rate system, market forces (based on demand and supply of a currency) determine the value of a currency. Currency Appreciation: It is an increase in the value of one currency in relation to another currency.
Currencies appreciate against each other for a variety of reasons, including government policy, interest rates, trade balances and business cycles. Currency appreciation discourages a country’s export activity as its products and services become costlier to buy.

65

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Constituent Assembly did not consist of members from the Muslim League.
  2. The Constituent Assembly is the first Parliament of free India. 

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

The elections to the Constituent Assembly (for 296 seats allotted to the British Indian Provinces) were held in July–August 1946. The Indian National Congress won 208 seats, the Muslim League 73 seats, and the small groups and independents got the remaining 15 seats.

66

Why are Bacteriophages seen as a possible therapy against multi-drug-resistant strains of many bacteria?

  1. These are ubiquitous viruses found wherever bacteria exist and can kill bacteria.
  2. They do not contain any RNA or DNA and thus cannot be infected by bacteria. 

    Select the correct answer code:

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

A bacteriophage is a type of virus that infects bacteria. In fact, the word “bacteriophage” literally means “bacteria eater,” because bacteriophages destroy their host cells. All bacteriophages are composed of a nucleic acid molecule that is surrounded by a protein structure. In other words, they are comprised of a protein capsule around an RNA or DNA genome.

67

Under which of the following circumstances can the Habeas Corpus not be issued?

  1. Against private individuals
  2. When the detention is lawful
  3. When the detention is by a competent court
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Habeas Corpus is a Latin term which literally means ‘to have the body of’. It is an order issued by the court to a person who has detained another person, to produce the body of the latter before it. The court then examines the cause and legality of detention. It would set the detained person free, if the detention is found to be illegal. Thus, this writ is a bulwark of individual liberty against arbitrary detention. The writ of habeas corpus can be issued against both public authorities as well as private individuals

68

Consider the following statements regarding Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs).

  1. Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) have the property of long-range environmental transport (LRET).
  2. Exposure to POPs can lead to cancer and diseases of immune system.
  3. As we move up the food chain, concentrations of POPs tend to decrease so that animals at the top of the food chain tend to have the low concentrations of these chemicals.
    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Exposure to POPs can lead to cancer, damage to central & peripheral nervous systems, diseases of immune system, reproductive disorders and interference with normal infant and child development.
Uniqueness of POPs:

  • POPs are lipophilic, which means that they accumulate in the fatty tissue of living animals and human beings.
  • In fatty tissue, the concentrations can become magnified by up to 70 000 times higher than the background levels.
  • As you move up the food chain, concentrations of POPs tend to increase so that animals at the top of the food chain such as fish, predatory birds, mammals, and humans tend to have the greatest concentrations of these chemicals.
69

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Indian Council Act of 1909 allowed the members of the legislative council to discuss the foreign policy
  2. The Government of India Act 1919 introduced the universal franchise for the first time in India
  3. The Government of India Act 1935 extended separate electorates for scheduled castes, Women and Labours.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Government of India Act of 1935further extended the principle of communal representation by providing separate electorates for depressed classes (scheduled castes), women and labour (workers).It extended franchise. About 10 per cent of the total population got the voting right.

70

Consider the following statements regarding Carbonisation:

  1. It involves pyrolysis of organic carbon to produce coke.
  2. Wood does not undergo carbonisation.
  3. A major advantage of industrial carbonisation is that no carbon monoxide emissions are involved. 

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Fossil fuels generally are the products of the carbonisation of vegetable matter. The term carbonisation is also applied to the pyrolysis of coal to produce coke. Carbonization is also a stage in the charcoal making process, and is considered the most important step of all since it has such power to influence the whole process from the growing tree to the final distribution of charcoal to various sources. The gas produced by carbonisation has a high content of carbon monoxide which is poisonous when breathed.

71

Which of the following parts of the constitution does not contain any provision indicating that India is secular state?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Sardar Swaran Singh Committee recommended the inclusion of a separate chapter on fundamental duties in the Constitution. It stressed that the citizens should become conscious that in addition to the enjoyment of rights, they also have certain duties to perform as well. The Congress Government at Centre accepted these recommendations and enacted the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act in 1976. This amendment added a new part, namely, PartIVA to the Constitution. This new part consists of only one Article, that is, Article 51A which for the first time specified a code of ten fundamental duties of the citizens. But it does not contain any provisions indicating that India is a secular state.

72

Which of the following are associated with North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)?

  1. Euro-Atlantic Partnership Council (EAPC)
  2. Mediterranean Dialogue
  3. Istanbul Cooperation Initiative 

    Select the correct answer code:

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

1. Euro-Atlantic Partnership Council (EAPC)
2. Mediterranean Dialogue
3. Istanbul Cooperation Initiative 

73

Which one of the following statements is not correct with reference to the Preamble?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

The Constitution as adopted on November 26, 1949, contained preamble, 395 Articles and 8 Schedules. The Preamble was enacted after the entire Constitution was already enacted.

74

In India, under which of the following occasions a person can be legally handcuffed?

  1. An accused on his/her arrest and before he/she is produced before the magistrate.
  2. An under-trial prisoner during transit from jail to the court.
  3. A convict being transported from jail to the court. 

    Select the correct answer code:

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

There can be three occasions when a person can be (legally) handcuffed, i.e., an accused on his arrest and before he is produced before the magistrate; an under-trial prisoner during transit from jail to the court and back; and a convict being transported from jail to the court and back. The law with regard to handcuffing was settled in 1980 when the Supreme Court of India, in Prem Shankar Shukla vs Delhi Administration, held that ‘the only circumstance which validates incapacitation by irons — an extreme measure — is that otherwise there is no other reasonable way of preventing his escape’. The Court mandated that in case of handcuffing, the reasons for this have to be recorded in writing and it is the duty of the court to make inquiries with the person arrested as to whether he had been handcuffed or not and then approve or reject the reasons.

75

Who among the following national leaders was not a part of the constituent assembly?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Mahatma Gandhi was not a part of the constituent assembly.

76

What are the benefits a country gets from the ‘developing country’ tag at the World Trade Organization (WTO)?

  1. It gets longer timeframes to implement the WTO agreements.
  2. It allows other countries to offer preferential treatment.
  3. It gets Zero duty and zero quota access for all exports to the developed countries. 

    Select the correct answer code:

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

      What are the benefits of ‘developing country’ tag?

  • Certain WTO agreements give developing countries special rights through ‘special and differential treatment’ (S&DT) provisions, which can grant developing countries longer timeframes to implement the agreements and even commitments to raise trading opportunities for such countries.
  • WTO pacts are often aimed at reduction in government support to certain industries over time and set more lenient target for developing nations and grant them more time to achieve these targets compared to developed ones.
  • The classification also allows other countries to offer preferential treatment.
  • Least Developed Countries (LDCs) are often exempted from certain provisions of WTO pacts. A country classified as an LDC, receives zero duty, zero quota access for most of its exports to developed countries.
77

Consider the following statements.

  1. In both the Houses of Parliament, elected members enjoy the right to seek information from various ministries and departments in the form of starred questions and unstarred questions.
  2. The admissibility of questions in Rajya Sabha is governed by Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Council of States.
  3. The questions in both the Houses of Parliament cannot be disallowed and is usually passed on to the next session of the Parliament if it cannot be accepted..

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

 

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:
  • In both Houses, elected members enjoy the right to seek information from various ministries and departments in the form of starred questions, unstarred questions, short notice questions and questions to private members.
  • The admissibility of questions in Rajya Sabha is governed by Rules 47-50 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Council of States. In Lok Sabha, the questions are examined for admissibility under Rules 41-44 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha.
  • In both Houses, the first hour of every sitting is usually devoted to asking and answering of questions, and this is referred to as the ‘Question Hour’.
  • The Rajya Sabha Chairman or the Lok Sabha Speaker has the authority to decide whether a question or a part is or is not admissible under the norms of the House, and disallow any question or a part. Once disallowed, it is often difficult for members to challenge the decision.
78

Consider the following statements with reference to the Indian Constitution

  1. It provides mutual exclusion of state and religion in order to protect individual freedom
  2. It provided for the concept of asymmetric federalism
  3. It encourages equal respect between communities.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

The Indian Constitution embodies the positive concept of secularism ie, all religions in our country (irrespective of their strength) have the same status and support from the state. There is not mutual exclusion of state and religion in order to protect individual freedom. So, statement 1 is not correct.

79

Consider the following statements regarding Distributed ledger technology (DLT).

  1. Distributed ledger technology (DLT) is a digital system for recording the transaction of assets in which the details are recorded in multiple places at the same time.
  2. Blockchain technology is a specific kind of Distributed ledger technology.
  3. Unlike traditional databases, distributed ledgers have a central data store or administration functionality. 

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:
  • Distributed ledger technology (DLT) and Block Chain technology:
  • Distributed ledger technology (DLT) is a digital system for recording the transaction of assets in which the transactions and their details are recorded in multiple places at the same time.
  • Unlike traditional databases, distributed ledgers have no central data store or administration functionality.
  • Whether distributed ledger technologies, such as blockchain, will revolutionize how governments, institutions and industries work is an open question. Blockchain technology is a specific kind of DLT that came to prominence after Bitcoin, a cryptocurrency that used it, became popular.
  • Cryptocurrencies such as Bitcoin use codes to encrypt transactions and stack them up in blocks, creating Blockchains. It is the use of codes that differentiates cryptocurrencies from other virtual currencies.
80

Consider the following statements with reference to the fundamental rights of the Indian Constitution:

  1. A fundamental right may only be changed by amending the Constitution itself
  2. Fundamental rights are not absolute rights
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

The Supreme Court ruled that the power of the Parliament to amend the Constitution under Article 368 also includes the power to amend Fundamental Rights. The Parliament can curtail or repeal them but only by a constitutional amendment act and not by an ordinary act. Moreover, this can be done without affecting the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution. So, statement 1 is correct.
Fundamental rights are not absolute but qualified. The state can impose reasonable restrictions on them. However, whether such restrictions are reasonable or not is to be decided by the courts. Thus, they strike a balance between the rights of the individual and those of the society as a whole, between individual liberty and social control. So, statement 2 is correct.

81

Consider the following statements regarding Programme Of Action (POA) of the International Conference on Population and Development:

  1. The Programme Of Action (POA) of the International Conference on Population and Development focuses on meeting the needs of individual women and men, rather than on achieving demographic targets.
  2. It is against coercion in family planning.
  3. India is a signatory to the Programme of Action (POA). 

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

India is a signatory to the Programme Of Action (POA) of the International Conference on Population and Development, 1994, which is unequivocally against coercion in family planning.
The Programme of Action, adopted by acclamation on 13 September 1994, emphasizes the integral linkages between population and development and focuses on meeting the needs of individual women and men, rather than on achieving demographic targets.

82

Which principle among the following was not added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added four new Directive Principles to the original list. They require the State:
To secure opportunities for healthy development of children (Article 39).So, option (a) is not correct.
To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article39 A). So, option (d) is not correct.
To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43 A).
To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wildlife (Article 48 A).So, option (c) is not correct

83

Hornbill Festival is the flagship festival celebrated mainly in

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

The Hornbill Festival is an annual festival celebrated from 1 to 10 of December in the North-eastern Indian state of Nagaland. The annual festival at Kisama near State capital Kohima showcases the culture and tradition of all the ethnic communities of Nagaland.

84

With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following:

  1. Fundamental Rights
  2. Fundamental Duties
  3. Directive Principles of State Policy
    Which of the above provisions of the Constitution of India is/are aided by the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme launched by the Government of India?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Socialistic Principles of Directive Principles of State Policy reflect the ideology of socialism. They lay down the framework of a democratic socialist state, aim at providing social and economic justice, and set the path towards welfare state. This reflects in Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme.

85

Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism is a plan to tax carbon-intensive products, such as iron and steel, cement, fertiliser, aluminium and electricity generation, is proposed by

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

The Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism is a plan from the European Union (EU) to tax carbon-intensive products, such as iron and steel, cement, fertiliser, aluminium and electricity generation, from 2026. The EU came up with the Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism in 2021.

86

Consider the following statements:

  1. ‘Union of India’ is a wider expression than ‘territory of India’.
  2. Union of India includes territories of the states, Union territories as well as territories acquired by Indian government.
  3. The laws made for acquisition of a foreign territory by Parliament are not to be considered as an amendment of the constitution under article 368. 

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

The ‘Territory of India’ is a wider expression than the ‘Union of India’ because the latter includes only states while the former includes not only the states but also union territories and territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any future time. The states are the members of the federal system and share a distribution of powers with the Centre. The union territories and the acquired territories, on the other hand, are directly administered by the Central government. So, statement 1 and 2 are not correct.

87

Consider the following statements.

  1. In a Narcoanalysis test, a drug is injected into the body of the accused, which transports them to a hypnotic or sedated state, in which their imagination is neutralised.
  2. A polygraph test is based on the assumption that physiological responses that are triggered when a person is lying are different from what they would be otherwise.
  3. Both Narcoanalysis test and polygraph test have been proved scientifically to have 100% success rate. 

    Which of the above statements is /are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

In a ‘narco’ or narcoanalysis test, a drug called sodium pentothal is injected into the body of the accused, which transports them to a hypnotic or sedated state, in which their imagination is neutralised. In this hypnotic state, the accused is understood as being incapable of lying, and is expected to divulge information that is true. A polygraph test is based on the assumption that physiological responses that are triggered when a person is lying are different from what they would be otherwise. A polygraph test does not involve injecting drugs into the body; rather instruments like cardio-cuffs or sensitive electrodes are attached to the suspect, and variables such as blood pressure, pulse rate, respiration, change in sweat gland activity, blood flow, etc., are measured as questions are put to them. A numerical value is assigned to each response to conclude whether the person is telling the truth, is deceiving, or is uncertain. In recent decades, investigating agencies have sought to employ these tests in investigation, which are sometimes seen as being a “softer alternative” to torture or “third degree” to extract the truth from suspects. However, neither method has been proven scientifically to have a 100% success rate, and remain contentious in the medical field as well.

88

Which of the following rights are available only to citizens of India and not to aliens?

  1. Right to life and personal liberty.
  2. Right to freedom speech and expression
  3. Right to vote in elections
  4. Right to contest elections
  5. Right to equality before law

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:
  • Right to freedom speech and expression
  • Right to vote in elections
  • Right to contest elections
89

No Money for Terror (NMFT) Conference is as an initiative of

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

India hosted the Third No Money for Terror (NMFT) Conference. India has proposed a permanent secretariat for “No Money for Terror,” a ministerial body, to sustain the continued global focus on countering the financing of terrorism. The NMFT started in 2018 as an initiative of the French government which had, in 1989, laid the foundation of the Financial Action Task Force (FATF), the international body at the forefront of combating money laundering and terrorist financing.

90

A ‘person of Indian origin’ who has an adequate knowledge of a language specified in the Eight schedule to the Indian Constitution can easily become Citizen of India by which one of the following ways?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

The Central Government may, on an application, grant a certificate of naturalisation to any person (not being an illegal migrant) if he has an adequate knowledge of a language specified in the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution. But if he is a person of Indian origin, it will be easy for him/her to obtain citizenship through registration route than naturalization. 

So, option (c) is correct.

91

Consider the following statements regarding Tariff rate quota (TRQ) system.

  1. The TRQ is a mechanism that allows import of a set quantity of specific products.
  2. They are used on a wide range of products but most are in the agriculture sector. 

    Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

The TRQ is a mechanism that allows import of a set quantity of specific products. Tariff quotas are used on a wide range of products but most are in the agriculture sector. Cereals, meat, fruit and vegetables, and dairy products are the most common, and sugar is also protected in most producing countries. The commerce ministry’s arm Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) has introduced an online system for traders who seek tariff rate quota (TRQ) for imports, a move aimed at promoting ease of doing business in the country.

92

Which one of the following writs shall be issued when the court finds that a particular office holder is not doing legal duty?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Mandamus literally means ‘we command’. It is a command issued by the court to a public official asking him to perform his official duties that he has failed or refused to perform. It can also be issued against any public body, a corporation, an inferior court, a tribunal or government for the same purpose. 

So, option (c) is correct.

93

Consider the following statements regarding Swami Vivekananda.

  1. Swami Vivekananda was an exponent of vedantic philosophy.
  2. He rejected the external rituals of religion.
  3. He spelt out the pathways of attaining moksha from worldly pleasure and attachment.
  4. He founded the Ramakrishna Mission.
    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Swami Vivekananda believed that there is only one Self in the universe. There is only one Existence. He saw the entire universe as a manifestation of the absolute One. Spiritual primacy is the central theme of Vivekananda’s teachings, through which human beings can succeed in every sphere of their lives. Nevertheless, he urges people, especially the youth, to never let go of reason. Instead, he premises his philosophy, ideas and life work on the premise of reason. The three instruments of knowledge that he propounded are instincts, reason, and inspiration. He was an exponent of vedantic humanism. He did not propagate a world-negating concept of spirituality, rather he said that each and every chore of your life should be done with divinity. He articulated that external rituals of religion are of secondary importance but the spiritual essence of a religion should be preserved and accepted. Karma Yoga, Bhakti Yoga, Raja Yoga and Jnana Yoga: Swami Vivekananda talked about the four pathways of attaining moksha from worldly pleasure and attachment in his books.

94

Consider the following statements with reference to the cultural and educational rights under the Article 29 of the Constitution of India?

  1. It grants protection to religious, linguistic and ethnic minorities
  2. It is applicable to all the citizens residing any part of the India.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Article 29 grants protection to both religious minorities as well as linguistic minorities. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Article 29 provides that any section of the citizens residing in any part of India having a distinct language, script or culture of its own, shall have the right to conserve the same. So, statement 2 is correct.

95

Consider the following statements.

  1. The Constitution of India defines its ‘basic structure’ in terms of democracy, fundamental rights, federalism and secularism.
  2. The Constitution of India provides for ‘judicial review’ to safeguard the citizens’ liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is based. 

    Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

The Doctrine of Basic Structure is a form of judicial review that is used to test the legality of any legislation by the courts. The Constitution of India does not define the basic structure, it is a judicial innovation. The doctrine was evolved by the Supreme Court in the 1973 landmark ruling in Kesavananda Bharati v State of Kerala. In a 7-6 verdict, a 13-judge Constitution Bench ruled that the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution is inviolable, and could not be amended by Parliament. In the Kesavananda ruling, the Supreme Court cited several aspects of the Constitution that could be identified as “basic features” of the document but added that it was not an exhaustive list. For example, judicial review, rule of law, federalism, and democratic republic structure are identified as basic features.

96

Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitutional provisions related to the citizenship

  1. It extensively deals with the problem of acquisition or loss of citizenship subsequent to its commencement
  2. It prescribes only three ways of losing citizenship.
     Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

The Citizenship Act, 1955, not constitution prescribes three ways of losing citizenship whether acquired under the Act or prior to it under the Constitution, viz,renunciation, termination and deprivation. The Constitution deals with the citizenship from Articles 5 to 11 under PartII. However, it contains neither any permanent nor any elaborate provisions in this regard. It only identifies the persons who became citizens of India atits commencement (i.e., on January 26, 1950). It does not deal with the problem of acquisition or loss of citizenship subsequent to its commencement.

97

Consider the following statements regarding Hypersonic missile.

  1. A hypersonic missile is a weapon system which flies at least five times the speed of sound.
  2. Unlike a ballistic missile, it follows a set course.
  3. At present only Russia and United States possess Hypersonic missiles. 

    Which of the above statement sis/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

A hypersonic missile is a weapon system which flies at least at the speed of Mach 5 i.e. five times the speed of sound and is manoeuvrable. The manoeuvrability of the hypersonic missile is what sets it apart from a ballistic missile as the latter follows a set course or a ballistic trajectory. Thus, unlike ballistic missiles, hypersonic missiles do not follow a ballistic trajectory and can be manoeuvred to the intended target. The two types of hypersonic weapons systems are Hypersonic Glide Vehicles (HGV) and Hypersonic Cruise Missiles. The HGV are launched from a rocket before gliding to the intended target while the hypersonic cruise missile is powered by air breathing high speed engines or ‘scramjets’ after acquiring their target. Apart from Russia, which announced its hypersonic missile ‘Kinzhal’ or Dagger in 2018 and has now used it for the first time in battle conditions in Ukraine, China too is reportedly in possession of this weapon system and has twice used it to circumnavigate the globe before landing near a target in August 2021.

98

Consider the following statements

  1. Constitution does not say anything about enforcing fundamental duties
  2. The inclusion of fundamental duties has not changed the status of our fundamental rights 

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Like the Directive Principles, the fundamental duties are also non-justiciable. The Constitution does not provide for their direct enforcement by the courts. Moreover, there is not legal sanction against their violation. However, the Parliament is free to enforce them by suitable legislation. The fundamental duties are statutory duties, not enforceable by law, but a court may take them into account while adjudicating on a matter. The idea behind their incorporation was to emphasise the obligation of the citizen in exchange for the Fundamental Rights that he or she enjoys.

99

Consider the following statements regarding G20 group.

  1. The working of G20 is divided into two tracks, i.e, the finance track and the Sherpa track.
  2. The Sherpa track focuses on broader issues such as political engagement, anti-corruption, development and energy. 
  3. IMF and World Bank are the permanent guest invitees for G20 summits.

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

The working of G20 is divided into two tracks:

  • The finance track: It comprises all meetings with G20 finance ministers and central bank governors and their deputies. Meeting several times throughout the year they focus on monetary and fiscal issues, financial regulations, etc. 
  • The Sherpa track: It focuses on broader issues such as political engagement, anti-corruption, development, energy, etc. Each G20 country is represented by its Sherpa; who plans, guides, implements, etc. on behalf of the leader of their respective country. The work of G20 members is supported by several international organizations (Permanent guest invitees). 
  • These organizations include: The Financial Stability Board (FSB). The FSB, which was established by G20 leaders following the onset of the global financial crisis, The International Labour Organization (ILO). The International Monetary Fund (IMF). The Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) United Nations (UN) World Bank The World Trade Organization (WTO)
100

Consider the following statements

  1. Fundamental Rights cannot be limited even for purposes of implementing Directive Principles under any circumstances
  2. Fundamental Rights restrain the government from doing certain things while Directive Principles exhort the government to do certain things.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Fundamental Rights cannot be amended for the implementation of the Directive Principles except the two provisions given in the article 31C No law which seeks to implement the socialistic Directive Principles specified in Article 39 (b) and (c) shall be void on the ground of contravention of the Fundamental Rights conferred by Article 14(equality before law and equal protection of laws), Article 19 (protection of six rights in respect of speech, assembly, movement, etc) or Article 31(right to property). No law containing a declaration for giving effect to such policy shall be questioned in any court on the ground that it does not give effect to such a policy.

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