Results

The Supreme Court in Gaurav Jain v. Union of India, 1997 directed to establish juvenile homes for the children of prostitutes. The Court held that society was responsible for a woman becoming a victim of circumstances therefore, society should make reparation to prevent trafficking in women, rescue them from red light areas and other areas in which the women were driven or trapped in prostitution.  Their rehabilitation by socio-economic empowerment and justice, is the constitutional duty of the State. Their economic empowerment and social justice with dignity of person, are the fundamental rights and the Court and the Government should positively endeavour to ensure them.

• In Parmananda Katara vs. Union Of India case, 1989 the Supreme Court held that it is obligatory for a doctor or a hospital, both public and private, to provide immediate emergency medical aid to a victim of a road accident.

• Article 21 of the Constitution of India states that “no person shall be deprived of his/her life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law”.

• Article 21 envisages various rights allied to or coming under the right to life and personal liberty. One such right is the right to health which forms an indispensable part of the fundamental right to life as mentioned under article 21. 

• The obligation of fulfilling this right of citizens passes over to our medical practitioners, particularly the cases which involve accidents and emergency conditions.

• April 28th, 1976 is considered to be the darkest day of the Indian Judicial System as the judgment for an infamous case of “ADM Jabalpur v Shivkant Shukla” also known as the “Habeas Corpus case” was delivered.

• This case goes to the time when the emergency was declared by the Indira Gandhi government, who issued a Presidential Order when the court declared her Prime Ministerial election as illegal. 

• The case arose out of a plea that whether a person has a right to approach the High Court or not when his/her Fundamental Rights are being violated, especially Article 21 (Right to Life and Liberty).

• The judgment was harsh, as it has established that a person’s right to approach the High court under Article 226 for writ of Habeas Corpus or any other writ for challenging the legality of an order of detention during an emergency period will remain suspended.

• However, the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, provided that Fundamental Rights guaranteed under Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended even during a national emergency.

Article 51A (j) enjoins upon every citizen the primary duty to constantly endeavour to prove excellence, individually and collectively, as a member of the group. Given an opportunity, the individual strives to improve excellence and thereby efficiency of administration would be augmented.  The Apex Court in Y.S Misra v. State of U.P Case, 1997 said that the officer entrusted with the duty to write confidential reports, has a public responsibility and trust to write the confidential reports objectively, fairly and dispassionately with the object of giving an opportunity to a public servant to improve excellence.

• In the S.R. Bommai case,1994  the Apex Court held that

• Democracy and federalism are basic features of the Constitution and Article 356 should be applied in a manner that preserve these features.

• Court observed that there is a difference between breakdown of constitutional machinery and administrative machinery.

• President’s power under Article 356 is not absolute and comes under the ambit of judicial review.

• Concrete material evidence is essential, in absence of the same courts can restore status quo ante.

• State Legislative Assemblies could only be suspended and cannot be dissolved before approval of resolution by the Parliament.

• Floor test is mandatory and the assembly cannot be dissolved before that on the basis of subjective conclusion of the Governor that ruling party has lost the majority.

• Supreme Court based on the Sarkaria Commission Report on Centre-state Relations (1988), listed the situations where the exercise of the President’s rule could be proper or improper.

• The imposition of President’s Rule in a state would be improper under the following situations:

• Where a ministry resigns or is dismissed on losing majority support in the assembly and the governor recommends imposition of President’s Rule without probing the possibility of forming an alternative ministry.

• Where the governor recommends imposition of President’s Rule without allowing the ministry to prove its majority on the floor of the Assembly.

• Where the ruling party in the state enjoying majority support in the Assembly had suffered a massive defeat in the general elections to the Lok Sabha.

• Maladministration in the state or allegations of corruption against the ministry or stringent financial exigencies of the state.

• Where the state government is not given prior warning to rectify itself except in case of extreme urgency leading to disastrous consequences.

• Where the power is used to sort out intra-party problems of the ruling party.

• Article 356 may be imposed in case of following situations:

• Where after general elections to the assembly, no party secures a majority, that is, ‘Hung Assembly’.

• Where the party having a majority in the assembly declines to form a ministry and the governor cannot find a coalition ministry commanding a majority in the assembly.

• Where a ministry resigns after its defeat in the assembly and no other party is willing or able to form a ministry commanding a majority in the assembly.

• Where a constitutional direction of the Central government is disregarded by the state government.

• Internal subversion where, for example, a government is deliberately acting against the Constitution and the law or is fomenting a violent revolt.

• Physical breakdown where the government wilfully refuses to discharge its constitutional obligations endangering the security of the state.

• If the State Government pursues anti-secular policies.

The expression ‘contempt of court’ has not been defined by the Constitution.

• However, Article 129 of the Constitution conferred on the Supreme Court the power to punish contempt of itself.

• Article 215 conferred a corresponding power on the High Courts.

• The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 defines both civil and criminal contempt.

• Civil contempt refers to wilful disobedience to any judgment of the court.

• Criminal contempt can be invoked if an act:

• Tends to scandalise or lower the authority of the court.

• Tends to interfere with the due course of any judicial proceeding.

• Obstruct the administration of justice.

• Section 5 of the Act provides that “fair criticism” or “fair comment” on the merits of a finally decided case would not amount to contempt.

• However, the determination of what is “fair” is left to the interpretation of judges.

• This open-ended interpretation sometimes compromise freedom of speech and expression under Article 19.

• To protect freedom of speech the Apex Court in the following judgments provided some safeguards in contempt of court cases:

• In P N Dutta V/s Shiv Shankar case (1988),the Apex Court held that no one could be restricted to criticize the judicial system unless it hampers the administration of justice.

• In Indirect Tax Practitioners Association V/s R K Jain case (2010), the Apex Court said that truth is a defence in matters of criminal contempt of court.

• In Shakti Vahini v Union of India  Case, 2018 the Supreme Court said that any attempt by Khap Panchayats or any other assembly to scuttle or preventing two consenting adults from marrying is absolutely 'illegal' and laid down preventive, remedial and punitive measures in this regard.

• The criminal cases pertaining to honour killing or violence to the couple(s) shall be tried before the designated Court/Fast Track Court earmarked for that purpose. 

• The trial must proceed on day to day basis to be concluded preferably within six months from the date of taking cognizance of the offence.

• The judgment also said that Khap panchayats should not take the law into their hands and cannot assume the character of a law implementing agency for that authority has not been conferred upon them under any law.

Since Early 1970s equality in Article 14 has acquired new and important dimensions thanks to some judgments delivered by the Supreme Court. With these new dimensions the Apex Court was able to enjoy some flexibility in interpreting Article 14 and somehow acquired a kind of activist role. Until then, as noted above, the requirements of Article 14 were met if a law or administrative action satisfied the reasonable classification doctrine based on nexus test. In E.P. Royappa Vs. State of T.N Case, 1973, the Supreme Court explained the new concept of equality. It was held that: Equality is a dynamic concept. There are many aspects and dimensions of it. It cannot be regulated in constitutional or doctrinaire limits.  Equality is antithetic of dictatorship. Equality and dictatorship are sworn enemies.  The relation of equality is with Rule of Law. Inequality is included in autocratic act and arbitrary action violates Art. 14. This view was again repeated in Maneka Gandhi Vs Union of India case, 1978. However, the Court did not abandon the doctrine of intelligible differentia and nexus test either.

Article 14 does not allow class-legislation. Class legislation means “Arbitrary or illogical discrimination”.However, it permits reasonable classification subject to two following conditions as stated by the Supreme Court in various judgments:

• The classification must be based on intelligible differentia which distinguishes persons or things that are grouped together from those that are left out of group.

• The nexus test necessitates that there must be a rational nexus between the basis of classification i.e. the differentia and the object sought to be achieved by the legislation.

• Legislations providing affirmative actions like reservation do not violate Article 14 as the classification is based on intelligible differentia like “backwardness” which separates SCs/STs from others and such legislations sought to remove that “backwardness” only; Thus, there is concrete nexus.

Article 14 uses the two expressions “equality before law” and “equal protection of law”.

• The phrase “equality before law” has a negative connotation and aims at implying the absence of any special privilege  by reason of birth, sex, religion etc in favour of individuals.

• The phrase “equal protection of law” has a positive connotation and aims at providing equal opportunities to all those who are in similar circumstances or situations.

• Article 14 in Indian Constitution connotes the Principle of Rule of Law.

Doctrine of Repugnancy : Article 254 of the Indian Constitution establishes the doctrine of repugnancy. The doctrine of repugnancy, in accordance to Article 254, states that if any part of State law is repugnant or conflicting to any part of a Central law which the Parliament is competent to enact, or to any part of a law of the matter of List III, then the Central law made by the Parliament shall prevail and the law made by the State legislature shall become void, to the extent of its repugnancy.

Doctrine of Colourable Legislation : The maxim doctrine of colourable legislation means what cannot be done directly cannot also be done indirectly. This doctrine is applied when legislature tries to accomplish something in a backhanded way when it can't do it straightforwardly. The Supreme Court in the case of K.C G Narayan Deo vs. State of Orissa has explained the meaning and scope of the doctrine as the court stated that as constitution has distributed the legislative powers amongst Union and States and also there are limitations on the legislative bodies in the shape of Fundamental rights, such limitations or restrictions must be adhered to by legislative bodies. This doctrine has been used in the cases to decide questions of capacity/ competency to enact a law when there is an allegation that a law-making body has violated its given power and has enacted after something in an indirect way which it can't do in a direct way.

Doctrine of Pith and Substance : This doctrine says that when there is a question of determining whether a particular law relates to a particular subject the court looks to the substance of the law (the core matter of law is considered). If the substance of the matter of the law lies within one of the 3 lists in the 7th Schedule, then the incidental encroachment by law on another lists, does not make it invalid because they are said to be intra vires. It is important because the powers of legislature will be strictly limited if every law is termed invalid on the grounds that it is encroaching upon other laws. Encroachment will be considered only when the substance of the law falls into an area ( or list in the 7th Schedule) where the concerned legislature does not enjoy any competence.

Doctrine of Harmonious Construction : It holds that when two provisions of a legal text or two different legislatures (for example it could be two laws enacted by Union and State) seem to conflict, they should be interpreted so that each has a separate effect and neither is redundant or nullified. In CIT v. Hindustan Bulk Carriers, the supreme court stated some important principles in this regard like:  The courts must avoid a clash on contradicting provisions and they must construe the opposing provisions so as to harmonize them.  When it is difficult to totally reconcile the distinctions in the conflicting provision that effect is given to both the provisions as much as possible. The courts must also keep in mind, that the harmonization is not to destroy any statutory provision or to make it pointless and also interpretation that makes the provision ambiguous or useless is not harmonious construction.

• Article 15 (1) and (2) proscribe the nation from discriminating any citizen on the basis of any one or many of the aspects such as religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth and others.

• Starting from article 15(3), the constitution of India attempts to deal with protective discrimination.

• Article 15(3) makes it possible for the state to create special provisions for protecting the interests of women and children.

• Article 15(4) capacitates the state to create special arrangements for promoting the interests and welfare of socially and educationally backward classes of the citizens or for the SC and STs.

• Article 15(5) inserted by 93rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2005 moves a step ahead and empowers the State to make reservations by law with regard to admissions into educational institutions both privately run and those that are aided or not aided by the government. From this rule only the minority run institutions such as the Madarsas are exempted.

• Article 15(6) [16(6) was also added] was inserted by 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019 to provide reservations to economically weaker sections for admission to educational institutions including private educational institutions, whether aided or unaided by the State, other than the minority educational institutions referred to in clause (1) of Article 30.

• Outcome of Ashok Kumar Thakur v. Union of India, 2008, Judgment:

• The Constitution (Ninety-Third Amendment) Act, 2005 does not violate the "basic structure" of the Constitution so far as it relates to the state maintained institutions and aided educational institutions. Question whether the Constitution (Ninety-Third Amendment) Act, 2005 would be constitutionally valid or not so far as "private unaided" educational institutions are concerned, is left open to be decided in an appropriate case.

• Principle of exclusion of “Creamy layer” applicable only to OBC's and this principle cannot be applied to SCs and STs.

• Reservation of 27% of seats for other backward classes is not illegal and the Parliament must be deemed to have taken into consideration all relevant circumstances when fixing the 27% reservation ( Note : Section 3 of Act 5 of 2007 provided for reservation of 15% seats for Scheduled Castes, 7% seats for Scheduled Tribes and 27% for Other Backward Classes in Central Educational Institutions. The reservation for SC and ST was not opposed in the petition, the reservation of 27% in favour of Other Backward Classes/Socially and Educationally Backward Classes was strongly opposed by various petitioners in these cases and same was decided in Ashok Kumar Thakur Case).

• Kesavananda Bharati  v. State of Kerala, is a landmark case of the Supreme Court of India that outlined the basic structure doctrine of the Indian Constitution. The case is also known as the Fundamental Rights Case.  The court asserted its right to strike down amendments to the constitution that were in violation of the fundamental architecture of the constitution.  Background of Kesavananda Bharati Case  In the Shankari Prasad case (1951) and Sajjan Singh case (1965) the Supreme Court held that Parliament had unrestricted power to amend the Constitution. In these two cases the Supreme Court had ruled that the term “law” in Article 13 must be taken to mean rules or regulations made in exercise of ordinary legislative power and not amendments to the Constitution made in exercise of constituent power under Article 368. This means Parliament had the power to amend any part of the Constitution including Fundamental rights. However, in the Golaknath case (1967), the Supreme Court held that Parliament could not amend Fundamental Rights, and power to amend the Constitution would be only with a Constituent Assembly. In Golaknath Case, the Court held that an amendment made under Article 368 is "law" within the meaning of Article 13 of the Constitution, and so is unlawful if it "takes away or abridged" a Fundamental Right granted under Part III. To overturn Golaknath judgment, union government passed 24th Constitutional Amendment Acts, 1971. 24th Amendment Act inserted Article 13(4) and 368(3) into the Constitution to provide expressly that Parliament has power to amend any provision of the Constitution as amendments under Article 368 were declared not to be the ordinary laws as provided in Article 13(2). The amendment further made it obligatory for the President to give his assent, when a Constitution Amendment Bill was presented to him. In 1969, the Indira Gandhi Government nationalized 14 private banks, and passed a legislation to this effect.

• In R.C. Cooper v. Union of India (1970) case, popularly known as the Bank Nationalization case, the Supreme Court held that the Constitution guarantees the right to adequate compensation under Article 31 and freedom to carry on a business under Article 19(1)(g).Court struck down the relevant portion of the legislation. The Constitution (Twenty-Fifth Amendment) Act 1971 was passed to reverse the Supreme Court’s ruling in R.C. Cooper. The Amendment replaced the word ‘compensation’ in Article 31(2) with ‘amount’ which could be fixed by law. This meant that if the Government acquired property from citizens, it could pay a nominal amount. The Amendment also stated that this ‘amount’ could not be challenged in Courts. The Amendment also inserted Article 31C. This Article stated that any law which was passed to implement the objectives under Article 39(b) and (c) – which are Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs)– could not be challenged or reviewed by the Court for violating fundamental rights under 14,19 or 31. It effectively prevented citizens from challenging laws relating to the acquisition of property. This was also an instance of the tussle between the Court and Parliament on the constitutional meaning of and relationship between fundamental rights and DPSPs. 24th and 25th Constitutional Amendments were challenged in Kesavananda Bharati (26th -Abolition of Privy Purse and 29th Amendments - related to Kerala Land Reforms Act were also challenged in the same case. Those two are discussed separately in Amendments chapter to avoid complexity here.). In Kesavananda Bharati Case, following principles were laid by the Apex Court: Upheld the 24th Amendment Act. Court upheld the 25th Amendment Act but held  the second part of section 3 invalid on the ground that judicial review is a basic feature of the Constitution and hence 31C shall be subject to judicial review as basic structure and hence cannot be taken away. It overruled Golak Nath judgement and established that: Parliament can amend the Constitution but subject to the basic structure; Fundamental Rights can be amended. The doctrine of basic structure was established. The power of Judicial review of the Courts was asserted.

State of Madras v. Champakam Dorairajan is a landmark decision of the Supreme Court of India. 

This judgement led to the First Amendment of the Constitution of India. It was the first major judgement regarding reservations in Republic of India.In its ruling the Supreme Court upheld the Madras High Court judgement, which in turn had struck down the Government Order (G.O) passed in 1927 in the Madras Presidency. The G.O had provided caste based reservation in government jobs and college seats. The Supreme Court's verdict held that providing such reservations was in violation of Article 29 (2) of the Indian Constitution. The case involved a conflict between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy, which one will prevail over the other? Here, Article 29(2) and Article 46 were in conflict. Here, the court held that Directive Principles of State Policy have to conform to and run as subsidiary to the Chapter of Fundamental Rights. The Court said that Chapter on Fundamental Rights were sacrosanct, and DPSPs as per article 37 are expressly made unenforceable by a Court, hence, cannot override the provisions found in Part III which, are expressly made enforceable by appropriate Writs, Orders or directions under article 32 and 226. DPSP can only be implemented as long as there is no infringement of Fundamental Rights under Part III. It is only in the Minreva Mills Case, 1980 that a balance between Fundamental Rights and DPSPs was sought to be established by the Court.

The Supreme Court in the Selvi Devi V/s State of Karnataka, 2010 case considered the constitutionality of various evidence gathering techniques including narcoanalysis, BEAP (Brain Electrical Activation Profile) or ‘brain mapping’, and polygraph tests. The Court ruled that the use of such neuroscientific investigative techniques constituted testimonial compulsion and violated an accused person’s right against self-incrimination under Article 20(3), and their right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 of the Constitution. The Court held that the protection against self-incrimination under Article 20(3) of the Constitution would have to be read considering the multiple dimensions of personal liberty under Article 21 such as the right to a fair trial and substantive due process. It also held that this would be applicable to the accused, suspects and witnesses.

• In Bijoe Emmanuel vs State of Kerala (1986), students belonging to the denomination of Jehovah’s Witnesses were allowed to abstain from singing the national anthem that they claimed to contradict their religious faith.

• Supreme court ruled that the right to freedom of speech and expression included the right to remain silent [Articles 19(1)(a)] and upheld the freedom of conscience [Article 25].

• The court also appealed in this judgment that "Our tradition teaches tolerance; our philosophy preaches tolerance; our constitution practices tolerance; let us not dilute it".

In K.A. Abbas vs Union of India, 1970 case, the Supreme Court of India upheld restrictions on public exhibition under Cinematograph Act, 1952, and rejected a petition that challenged the Act’s powers of censorship. The Court ruled that prior censorship fell within the reasonable restrictions permitted on free expression, and that the Act was sufficiently clear to avoid arbitrary exercise of the powers therein.

Supreme Court in the NALSA case (2014) affirmed that the fundamental rights granted under the constitution of India will be equally applicable to transgenders.  And also gave them the right of self-identification of their gender as male, female or third gender.  Later, Parliament passed the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019 recognizing their rights and prohibiting their discrimination. Further in Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India 2018, Supreme Court decriminalized homosexuality by striking off parts of Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) which were held violative of Fundamental Rights of the LGBTQ Community.

• In PUCL v. Union of India, 2013 Judgment the Apex Court directed the Election Commission to introduce NOTA in EVMs.

• NOTA gives voters dissatisfied with contesting candidates an opportunity to express their disapproval and improves the voter's turnout ratio.

• However, NOTA could not be used as a means of "right to reject" as even if NOTA gets majority of votes, the candidate who receives second highest amount of votes is declared to be the winner.

• Supreme Court in 2018 held that the NOTA option is only meant for Universal Adult Suffrage and direct elections and not for the indirect elections of the Rajya Sabha as it goes contrary to Article 80(4) of the constitution.

• Article 80(4) says the representatives of each State in the Council of States shall be elected by the elected members of the Legislative Assembly of the State by proportional representation through a single transferable vote.

Supreme Court in Lily Thomas case struck down Section 8(4) of the RPA,1951 as unconstitutional.  Section 8(4) allowed convicted MPs, MLAs, and MLCs to continue in the legislative bodies as members provided they appealed against their conviction in higher courts within 3 months of the date of judgment by the trial court. Court held that MPs and MLAs, on conviction for offenses of minimum of 2 years will be immediately disqualified from holding membership of the House without being given three months for appeal, as was the case before.

Supreme Court laid the Vishakha guidelines to prevent sexual harassment of working women. 

It held that sexual harassment is against women’s dignity and it is a violation of Articles 14, 15 (1), and (2) of the constitution.  Later Parliament made “The Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act 2013” based on the Vishaka guidelines.

• Mechanism: The Act defines sexual harassment at the workplace and creates a mechanism for redressal of complaints. Every employer is required to constitute an Internal Complaints Committee at each office or branch with 10 or more employees. The Complaints Committees have the powers of civil courts for gathering evidence. The Complaints Committees are required to provide for conciliation before initiating an inquiry if requested by the complainant.

• Penal Provisions: Penalties have been prescribed for employers. Non-compliance with the provisions of the Act shall be punishable with a fine. Repeated violations may lead to higher penalties and cancellation of license or registration to conduct business.

• Responsibility of Administration: The State Government will notify the District Officer in every district, who will constitute a Local Complaints Committee (LCC) so as to enable women in the unorganised sector or small establishments to work in an environment free of sexual harassment. Thus, the Act has the provisions to protect the women from sexual harassment, working in both organized and unorganized sector.

• The Supreme court in the Minerva Mills case ruled that the power of the Parliament to amend the constitution is limited by the constitution itself. 

• FRs and DPSPs together constitute the core of the commitment to social revolution.

• To give absolute primacy to one over the other through the lawmaking power of the Parliament is to disturb the harmony of the Constitution.

• This harmony and balance between the two is an essential feature of the basic structure of the constitution.

Explanation: 
Statement 1 is correct: As per the Tenth Schedule, a member of Parliament elected as an independent candidate shall be disqualified if he joins any political party after his election. Only nominated members are allowed to join a political party within the first six months of taking a seat in the House. 
Statement 2 is correct: A member of the Rajya Sabha shall not be disqualified as per the provisions of the Tenth Schedule if he voluntarily gives up the membership of his political party after he is elected the Deputy Chairman. 
Statement 3 is incorrect: As per the provisions of the Tenth Schedule, if a member of the Parliament votes or abstains from voting in the House contrary to any direction issued by the political party to which he belongs, he may lose his parliamentary seat only if the political party has not condoned such voting or abstention and applies for his/her disqualification from the seat within fifteen days from such action of the member.

Explanation: 

• Nuclear fusion is the process of combining atomic nuclei to form a heavier nucleus, releasing a large amount of energy in the process. This process occurs naturally in stars, including our sun. Scientists are currently working to develop practical methods for harnessing this energy on Earth. 
• Nuclear fusion can be used to power spacecraft, providing a more efficient means of propulsion than traditional chemical rockets. 
• Nuclear fusion can be used to produce heat for desalination, making it a potential solution for providing clean drinking water in regions where freshwater is scarce.
• Nuclear fusion can be used to consume nuclear waste, reducing the volume and radioactivity of waste material.
• Nuclear fusion can be used to produce medical isotopes, which are used in the diagnosis and treatment of various diseases, such as cancer.
• Nuclear fusion has the potential to provide a clean and carbon-free source of energy that is virtually unlimited.

Explanation: 
Statement 1 is incorrect: The population of elephants in India has reached up to about 27,312 (2017 Census). Karnataka had the highest number of elephants (6,049), followed by Assam (5,719) and Kerala (3,054). Protection Status: 
• IUCN Red List: Endangered 
• CITES: Appendix I 
•Wildlife Protection Act 1972: Schedule I 
Statement 2 is correct: Project Elephant is a centrally sponsored scheme and was launched in February 1992 for the protection of elephants, their habitats, and corridors. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change provides financial and technical support to major elephant range states in the country through the project
Statement 3 is incorrect: Recently, the Government of India announced the notification of one more Elephant Reserve (ER) Agasthiyamalai in Tamil Nadu during a program in the Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary in Kerala. Agasthiyamalai is Tamil Nadu’s 5th Elephant Reserve and also a Biosphere Reserve. The other four elephant reserves of Tamil Nadu are: 
1. Nilgiris – Eastern Ghat (Nilgiri Elephant Reserve)
2. Nilambur Silent Valley Coimbatore Elephant Reserve ( Nilambur Elephant Reserve )
3. Periyar Elephant Reserve (Srivilliputhur Elephant Reserve) 
4. Anamalai – Parambikulam Elephant Reserve (Anamalai Elephant Reserve)

Explanation: 
Self-Respect Movement was led by E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker during the 1920s in South India  Gopal Baba Walangkar became the first Dalit to launch a newspaper, Vital Vidhvasak  Mooknayak was published in 1920s by Bhimrao Ambedkar  Bahishkrit Hitakarini Sabha was formed in 1924 by Bhimrao Ambedkar with the motto of ‘Educate, Agitate and Organise’, the focus being on mobilizing the masses.

Explanation The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List of Threatened Species (also known as the IUCN Red List or Red Data Book), founded in 1964, is the world’s most comprehensive inventory of the global conservation status of biological species. 
• Bengal Florican,Great Indian Bustard, Himalayan Quail- Critically Endangered
• Honey Guide- Near Threatened.

Explanation:The Early Vedic period also known as the Rigvedic period, is generally considered to have occurred from around 1500 to 1000 BCE, while the Later Vedic period is generally considered to have occurred from around 1000 to 500 BCE.  The Early Vedic Period was characterized by a nomadic lifestyle, with people living in small tribes and relying on cattle rearing as their main source of wealth.  There was a simple social organization, with the tribal chief or Rajan as the leader.  Religion during this period was primarily centered on nature gods and goddesses, and there were no elaborate religious rituals. The society during this period was oral tradition based. The Later Vedic Period saw a shift towards a settled lifestyle, with the emergence of the concept of land ownership and the rise of agriculture and craftsmanship as important sources of wealth. Social organization became more complex, with the emergence of four classes of society: Brahmins, Kshatriyas, Vaishyas, and Shudras. Religion during this period saw the emergence of elaborate religious rituals and sacrifices, and the worship of personal gods and goddesses. Society during this period saw the emergence of a written tradition with the composition of the Vedas. The Kshatriya or warrior class emerged as a ruler during this period.

Explanation: 
Statement 1 is correct: The Returning Officer (RO) is responsible for conducting elections in a constituency, which also includes counting votes. Counting is performed by counting supervisors appointed by the RO 
Statement 2 is correct: The Returning Officer is an officer of the government or a local authority nominated by the Election Commission of India for each constituency in consultation with the State Government 
Statement 3 is correct: The Model Code of Conduct (MCC) is not enforceable by law. However, certain provisions of the MCC may be enforced through other statutes such as the Indian Penal Code, 1860, Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, and Representation of the People Act, 1951 
Statement 4 is incorrect: The Model Code of Conduct (MCC) is not a part of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. In 2013, the Standing Committee on Personnel, Public Grievances, Law and Justice, recommended that the MCC be made a part of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.

Explanation: 
Statement 1 is correct: Smaller objects, like individual stars, can also act as gravitational lenses when they pass in front of more distant stars. 
More complex gravitational lensing arises in observations of massive clusters of galaxies. While the distribution of matter in a galaxy cluster generally does have a center, it is never circularly symmetric and can be significantly lumpy. Background galaxies are lensed by the cluster and their images often appear as short, thin “lensed arcs” around the outskirts of the cluster.
Statement 2 is correct: These lensed images also act as probes of the matter distribution in the galaxy cluster. The results indicate that most of the matter in a galaxy cluster is not in the visible galaxies or hot gas around them and does not emit light, and is thus called dark matter. The distribution of lensed images reflects the distribution of all matter, both visible and dark. Hubble’s images of gravitational lensing have been used to create maps of dark matter in galaxy clusters. Additional Information: A gravitational lens can occur when a huge amount of matter, like a cluster of galaxies, creates a gravitational field that distorts and magnifies the light from distant galaxies that are behind it but in the same line of sight. The effect is like looking through a giant magnifying glass. It allows researchers to study the details of early galaxies too far away to be seen with current technology and telescopes.

Explanation:
Statement (a) is correct: The development of classical art and architecture during the Gupta period in ancient India was one of the significant achievements of the era. The Gupta period is considered the "Golden Age" of Indian art and is known for its achievements in sculpture, painting, and architecture
Statement (b) is correct: During the Gupta period in ancient India, there was great patronage of scholars and the emergence of a golden age of Indian science and mathematics. The Gupta emperors were great patrons of learning and encouraged the study of mathematics, astronomy, medicine, and other sciences. This led to the emergence of a golden age of Indian science and mathematics during the Gupta period. 
Statement (c) is incorrect: The Gupta period is well known for its achievements in art, literature, science, and mathematics, and also for the patronization of Buddhism by the Gupta emperors.
Statement (d) is correct: During the Gupta period in ancient India, there was the development of an efficient administrative system. The Gupta emperors established a centralized administrative system that effectively governed the vast territories under their control. They developed a system of administration based on a network of officials and bureaucrats who were responsible for maintaining law and order, collecting taxes, and ensuring the welfare of the people.

Explanation: 
• Export is considered as a service offered by a sister concern, subsidiary, or group concern located in India to a foreign company located in foreign.
• All of the above are earning foreign currency by supplying services to the foreigner.

Explanation :
Statement 1 is correct: Carbon trading, also referred to as carbon emissions trading, is a market-based system of buying and selling permits and credits that allow the permit holder to emit carbon dioxide. The model used in most carbon trading schemes is called ‘cap and trade’. The carbon credits and the carbon trade are authorized by governments with the goal of gradually reducing overall carbon emissions and mitigating their contribution to climate change.
Statement 2 is correct: Carbon markets are a tool for putting a price on carbon emissions. It allows the trade of carbon credits with the overall objective of bringing down emissions. These markets create incentives to reduce emissions or improve energy efficiency.  Another unit that is struggling to attain the prescribed standards can buy these credits and show compliance with these standards. The unit that did better on the standards earns money by selling credits, while the buying unit is able to fulfill its operating obligations.  It establishes trading systems where carbon credits or allowances can be bought and sold.  A carbon credit is a kind of tradable permit that, per United Nations standards, equals one tonne of carbon dioxide removed, reduced, or sequestered from the atmosphere.  Carbon allowances or caps, meanwhile, are determined by countries or governments according to their emission reduction targets.

Explanation: 
• International Finance Corporation (IFC) created EDGE as a green building certification system focused on making buildings resource efficient. 
• An innovation of the International Finance Corporation (IFC), a member of the World Bank Group, EDGE (“Excellence in Design for Greater Efficiencies”) provides market leaders with the opportunity to gain a competitive advantage by differentiating their products and adding value to the lives of their customers. 
• EDGE brings speed, market intelligence, and an investment focus to the next generation of green building certification in more than 170 countries.
• IFC created EDGE to respond to the need for a measurable and credible solution to prove the business case for building green and unlocking financial investment.
• EDGE includes a cloud-based platform to calculate the cost of going green and utility savings. The state-of the-art engine has a sophisticated set of city-based climate and cost data, consumption patterns, and algorithms for predicting the most accurate performance results.
• It is currently funded by the UK government.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The NFC method is far quicker than scanning a QR code or inputting a UPI-linked cell phone number. 
Statement 2 is correct: The NFC is a short-range wireless networking technology that enables NFC-enabled devices to interact and transmit information with a single touch, whether it is to pay the bills, exchange business cards, download discounts or share a document. 
Statement 3 is correct: The NFC allows two devices to communicate by transmitting data using electromagnetic radio signals. Because the transactions occur over such a small distance, both devices must have NFC chips. To transmit data, the NFC-enabled devices must be physically contacting or within a few centimeters of each other.

Explanations: 
Pair 1 is incorrect: Ammonia is formed from agricultural processes, particularly in fertilizer production and livestock waste management. Indoor causes include cigarette smoke and cleaning solutions. 
Pair 2 is correct: Lead (Pb) common sources are metal processing, waste incineration, and fossil-fuel combustion. 
Pair 3 is incorrect: Ground Level Ozone is formed from Nitrogen oxides (NOx) and volatile organic compounds (VOCs) from industrial and automobile emissions, gasoline vapors, chemical solvents, and electrical utilities.

Explanation 
Statement 1 is incorrect: Money raised from small saving schemes and provident fund schemes form the part of Public Accounts of India. 
Statement 2 is incorrect: The contingency fund of India is held at the disposal of the President of India. 
Statement 3 is incorrect: Parliamentary authorization for payments from the Public Account is not required.

Explanation: 8 core industries in ascending order of their weight in the Index of Eight Core Industries 
Refinery products (28.04%) 
Electricity (19.85%)  
Steel (17.92%) 
Coal (10.33%) 
Crude oil (8.98%) 
Natural gas (6.88%) 
Cement (5.37%) 
Fertilisers (2.63%).

Explanation: 
Statement (a) is correct: In 1904, Ramabai Ranade founded the Ladies Social Conference (Bharat Mahila Parishad), under the parent organization National Social Conference 
Statement (b) is correct: Pandita Ramabai Saraswati founded the Arya Mahila Samaj to serve the cause of women. Her request for improvement in the educational syllabus of Indian women before the English Education Commission was referred to Queen Victoria. This resulted in medical education for women which started at Lady Dufferin College 
Statement (c) is correct: In 1925, the National Council of Women in India, a national branch of the International Council of Women, was formed. Mehribai Tata played a vital role in its formation and advancement 
Statement (d) is incorrect: The All India Women’s Conference (AIWC), was founded by Margaret Cousins in 1927. It was recognized as one of the first women’s organizations in India with an egalitarian approach.

Explanation: 
Statement 1 is correct: Rules of the House, the Code of Conduct, and the detailed Parliamentary Etiquette to be complied with by the Members of Parliament are aimed at ensuring a high standard of behaviour of members inside the House, and ensuring effective performance of the Members individually and of the House collectively. Hence, disruptions of proceedings amount to contempt of the House, and disruptors cannot claim it as their privilege to do so. 
Statement 2 is incorrect: Privileges granted to the Members of Parliament like the Freedom of Speech in the House are available only to the extent they are necessary for the House to freely perform its functions. If the misuse of this privilege hampers the effective discharge of the collective functions of the House, it amounts to contempt of the House for which it can attract penal provisions. Moreover, they cannot discuss the conduct of any Judge of the Supreme Court or of a High Court. 
Statement 3 is correct: As per Article 105 (3) of the Constitution, the Parliament does not have recourse to the court for exercising its penal powers and can punish people who breach the privileges given to the Members of Parliament on its own.

Explanation: 
• Single cell may constitute a whole organism as in Amoeba, Chlamydomonas, Paramoecium, and Bacteria. These organisms are called unicellular organisms (uni = single).
• On the other hand, many cells group together in a single body and assume different functions in it to form various body parts in multicellular organisms (multi = many) such as some fungi, • • • plants, and animals. Every multi-cellular organism has come from a single cell. Cells divide to produce cells of their own kind. All cells thus come from pre-existing cells.

Explanation: 
Statement 1 is correct: NGT is a specialized body set up under the National Green Tribunal Act (2010) for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources.
Statement 2 is incorrect: With the establishment of the NGT, India became the third country in the world to set up a specialized environmental tribunal, only after Australia and New Zealand, and the first developing country to do so. 
Statement 3 is correct: The Tribunal comprises the Chairperson, the Judicial Members, and Expert Members. They shall hold office for a term of three years or till the age of sixty-five years, whichever is earlier, and are not eligible for reappointment. The Chairperson is appointed by the Central Government in consultation with the Chief Justice of India (CJI). A Selection Committee shall be formed by the central government to appoint the Judicial Members and Expert Members. There are to be at least 10 and a maximum of 20 full-time Judicial members and Expert Members in the tribunal.
Statement 4 is correct: Being a statutory adjudicatory body like Courts, apart from original jurisdiction on the filing of an application, NGT also has appellate jurisdiction to hear appeals as a Court (Tribunal).

Explanation: 
Statement 1 is correct: They are financial institutions that offer various banking services but do not have a banking license. 
Statement 2 is correct: The deposit insurance facility of Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation is not available to depositors of NBFCs 
Statement 3 is incorrect: NBFCs do not form part of the payment and settlement system and cannot issue cheques drawn on themselves. NBFC cannot accept demand deposits and they are not regulated under the Banking regulation act, of 1949.

Explanation: 
The semi-evergreen forests are found in the less rainy parts of these regions. Such forests have a mixture of evergreen and moist deciduous trees. The undergrowing climbers provide an evergreen character to these forests. The main species are white cedar, hollock and kail.
Statement 1 is correct: The British were aware of the economic value of the forests in India, hence, large scale exploitation of these forests was started. The structure of forests was also changed.
Statement 2 is correct: Forests were also cleared for introducing plantations of tea, rubber and coffee. The British also used timber for construction activities as it acts as an insulator of heat. The protection use of forests was, thus, replaced by commercial use. 
Statement 3 is incorrect: Tropical Deciduous Forests are the most widespread forests in India. They are also called monsoon forests. They spread over regions which receive rainfall between 70-200 cm.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Tropical Deciduous Forests, On the basis of the availability of water, these forests are further divided into moist and dry deciduous. Moist deciduous forests are more pronounced in the regions that record rainfall between 100-200 cm. These forests are found in the northeastern states along the foothills of the Himalayas, the eastern slopes of the Western Ghats and Odisha. Teak, sal, shisham, hurra, mahua, amla, semul, Kusum, sandalwood etc. Dry deciduous forest covers vast areas of the country, where rainfall ranges between 70 -100 cm. On the wetter margins, it has a transition to the moist deciduous, while on the drier margins to thorn forests. These forests are found in rainier areas of the Peninsula and the plains of Uttar Pradesh and Bihar. these forests have a parkland landscape with open stretches in which teak and other trees interspersed with patches of grass are common.

Explanation: 
Index/report published by World Economic Forum: 

1. Global Human Capital Index 
2. Global Information Technology Report 
3. Travel and Tourism Competitiveness Report 
4. Global Competitiveness Report 
5. Global Enabling Trade Report 
6. Global Energy Architecture Performance Index 
7. Global Environment Performance Index 
8. World Power Language Index
9. Inclusive Development Index 
10. Global Gender Gap Index 
11. Global Risk Report Energy Transition Index 
12. Future of Jobs Report 
13. Global Manufacturing Index 
14. Social Mobility Index 
15. Global Economic Prospect (GEP) Report is published by World Bank

Explanation: 
• Vishnu Sharma is best known as the author of the Panchatantra, a collection of animal fables and moral stories that are still widely read and enjoyed today. The Panchatantra is considered to be one of the greatest works of Indian literature and is known for its wit, wisdom and humor. 
• Dhanvantari is considered the father of Ayurveda, one of the traditional systems of medicine that originated in ancient India. He is revered as the god of medicine and health in Hinduism and is also considered one of the nine celestial physicians in Hindu mythology. 
• Varahamihira was a polymath who lived during the Gupta Empire in ancient India, around the 6th century CE. He was an astronomer, mathematician, and astrologer, and is known for his contributions to various fields of science and mathematics. Varahamihira wrote several influential texts such as "Brihat Samhita" and “Pancha Siddhantika”.

Explanation : 
Statement 1 is incorrect : Frequency and destructivity of cyclones are greater in the Bay of Bengal as against the Arabian Sea. 
Statement 2 is correct : Since most of the rivers are east flowing in the peninsular part. There is a continuous mixing of the freshwater of the rivers with that of the ocean water in the Bay of Bengal region and hence mixing with the cold bottom water is prevented to some extent. This keeps the surface water warmer for the cyclone formation.
Statement 3 is correct : Accumulated Cyclone Energy (ACE) is the measure of the destructiveness of a cyclone. Two or more cyclones occurring together have greater ACE and are more destructive. Events of simultaneous cyclones were witnessed in the Arabian Sea recently.

Explanation: 
Statement 1 is incorrect: African swine fever is a contagious, viral disease that affects domestic pigs and wild boar, leading to high mortality. It does not affect people and hence is not zoonotic. 
Statement 2 is correct: African swine fever is a virus that can cause serious problems for pigs, including death. This virus is part of the Asfarviridae family, and it is one of the most detrimental diseases in the pork industry. 
Statement 3 is correct: African swine fever (ASF) is a highly contagious viral disease of domestic and wild pigs, whose mortality rate can reach 100%. There is no treatment or vaccine available for this disease. The only way to stop this disease is to depopulate all affected or exposed swine herds.

Explanation: 
Statement 1 is correct: Keshub Chandra Sen took the Brahmo Samaj movement out of the limited elite circles of Calcutta literati into the larger numbers of non-Westernised masses in the eastern Gangetic plains and took the movement outside Bengal to other provinces of India 
Statement 2 is correct: Compared to the Brahmo Samaj, the Prarthana Samaj took a cautious approach in spreading its ideals. It sought to bring reforms gradually, and not abruptly so as to wreck the structure of the society. It was this gradualist approach, which made Prarthana Samaj relatively more acceptable to the larger society. 
Statement 3 is correct: Dadaji Bhikaji vs Rukhmabai case of 1884 contributed to enactment of the Age of Consent Act (1891). Rukhmabai, who went on to become India’s first woman physician to practise medicine, was married to Dadaji Bhikaji at the age of 11. 
Statement 4 is correct: Child Marriage Restraint Act (Sarda Act), which came into force in 1930, further pushed up the marriage age to 18 and 14 for boys and girls, respectively. The force behind it was Harbilas Sarda, who was an Indian academic and judge. He was a follower of Dayanand Saraswati and a member of the Arya Samaj.

Explanation: 
A rate cut in the US is good for emerging market economies and is projected to catalyse a debt and equity market rally in countries such as India. As a result, FIIs would want to borrow money in the US at low-interest rates in dollar terms and then invest that money in bonds of emerging countries such as India in Rupee terms to earn a higher rate of interest. 
Statement 1 is correct: When the US Fed cuts its interest rates, the difference between the interest rates of the two countries increases, thus making India more attractive for the currency carry trade. 
Statement 2 is incorrect: It can increase the external debt as more external commercial borrowing and more FII investment will take place in India.
Statement 3 is correct: More investment in India means more business and thus more employment opportunities.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Seagrasses are underwater plants that evolved from land plants. They are like terrestrial plants in that they have leaves,flowers, seeds, roots, and connective tissues, and they make their food through photosynthesis. 
Statement 2 is incorrect: Unlike terrestrial plants, however, they do not have strong stems to hold themselves up. Instead they’re supported by the buoyancy of the water that surrounds them.
Statement 3 is correct: Seagrasses have been called ‘the lungs of the sea’ because they release oxygen into the water through the process of Photosynthesis. Seagrasses are a very important food source and habitat for wildlife, supporting a diverse community of organisms including fish, octopuses, sea turtles, shrimp, blue crabs, oysters, sponges, sea urchins, anemones, clams, and squid.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Seagrass are flowering plants that grow submerged in shallow marine waters like bays and lagoons. These have tiny flowers and strap-like or oval leaves.

EXPLANATION: 
Buddhism made an important impact on the society by keeping its doors open to women and shudras. As both women and shudras were placed in the same category by Brahmanism, they were neither given the sacred thread nor allowed to read Vedas. Their conversion to Buddhism freed them from such restrictions. Buddhism did not deprecate manual labour. In a second century sculpture from BodhGaya, the Buddha is depicted ploughing with oxen. 
Buddhism advised people not to accumulate wealth. According to it, poverty breeds hatred, cruelty, and violence. To eradicate these evils, Buddha taught that farmers should be provided with grain and other facilities, traders with wealth, and the unemployed with employment. These measures were recommended to eradicate poverty in the world. Buddhism also taught that if the poor gave alms to the monks, they would be born wealthy in the next world. o Buddhism created and developed a new awareness in the field of intellect and culture. It taught the people not to take things for granted but to argue and judge them on merits. To a certain degree, the place of superstition was taken by logic, promoting rationalism among people. 

Explanation: 
Statement 1 is correct: In India, the new HAM is a mix of The Build Operate and Transfer (BOT) Annuity and Engineering, Procurement and Construction (EPC) Model.
Statement 2 is correct: The government pays only 40%, during the construction stage, the developer has to arrange 60% of total cost by themselves. 
Hybrid annuity means the first 40% payment is made as fixed amount in five equal instalments whereas the remaining 60% is paid as variable annuity amount after the completion of the project depending upon the value of assets created. 
Statement 3 is incorrect: There is no toll right for the developer. Under HAM, Revenue collection would be the responsibility of the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI).

Explanation: 
Nilgiri Tahr, Kashmiri Stag and Malabar Civet are listed as Critically Endangered on IUCN Red List.  The dhole (Cuon alpinus) is a canid native to Central and Southeast Asia.  Other names for the species include Indian wild dog, whistling dog, Asiatic wild dog, red wolf (not to be confused with Canis rufus), and mountain wolf.  The dhole is a highly social animal, living in large clans without rigid dominance hierarchies and containing multiple breeding females.  In tropical forests, the dhole competes with tigers and leopards, targeting somewhat different prey species, but still with substantial dietary overlap.  It is listed as Endangered by the IUCN, as populations are decreasing and estimated at less than 2, 500 adults. Factors contributing to this decline include habitat loss, loss of prey, competition with other species, persecution, and disease transfer from domestic dogs.

Explanation: Coal is a combustible black or brownish-black sedimentary rock with a high amount of carbon and hydrocarbons. Coal is classified as a nonrenewable energy source because it takes millions of years to form. 
Statement 1 is incorrect : Lignite - often referred to as brown coal, is a soft brown combustible sedimentary rock that is formed from naturally compressed peat. It is considered the lowest rank of coal due to its relatively low heat content. It has a carbon content of around 25-35%.It is mined in Bulgaria, Kosovo, Greece, Germany, Poland, Serbia, Russia, Turkey, the United States, Canada, India, Australia, and many other parts of Europe, and it is used almost exclusively as a fuel for steamelectric power generation. 
Statement 2 is correct : Bituminous coal or black coal is relatively soft coal containing a tar-like substance called bitumen. It is of higher quality than lignite coal but of poorer quality than anthracite. Carbon content of bituminous coal is around 60-80%, the rest is composed of water, air, hydrogen, and sulfur.
Statement 3 is incorrect : Anthracite is a hard, compact variety of mineral coal that has a high luster. It has the highest carbon content, the fewest impurities, and the highest calorific content of all types of coal. The carbon content is between 92.1% and 98%. It is used mainly in power generation, in the metallurgy sector. Anthracite is mined in only a few countries around the world. China accounts for the majority of global production and other producers are Russia, Ukraine, North Korea, Vietnam, the UK, Australia, and the US.

Explanation: Some of the campaign agendas of political associations before the appearance of Indian National Congress on the scene are as follows:  Lord Lytton’s expedition of Anglo-Afghan war  against Vernacular Press Act (1878)  for an All-India Fund for Political Agitation  in support of Ilbert Bill  against reduction in maximum age for appearing in Indian Civil Service  against Arms Act (1878)  for imposition of import duty on cotton (1875).

Explanation : 
Statement 1 is incorrect : While there is currently no established credit mechanism for regular school education in India, there is a credit system under the open schooling system and a Choice Based Credit System (CBCS) for higher education.
Statement 2 is correct :The framework offers flexibility in choosing courses, the option to change courses or institutions midway or to re-enter the education system after dropping out without losing years.
Statement 3 is incorrect : According to the University Grants Commission (Establishment and Operation of Academic Bank Of Credits in Higher Education) Regulations notified in July 2021, the credits shall remain valid for a maximum duration of seven years.
Statement 4 is incorrect : The learner would also be able to earn more than 40 credits in a year if they partake in any additional program/course beyond the prescribed 1200 learning hours or beyond the purview of the course syllabus. 
Statement 5 is incorrect : The credits and credit levels will be assigned uniformly between different areas of learning, i.e. arts and sciences, vocational and academic streams, and curricular and extracurricular activities.

Explanation: 
The National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC) is a statutory Corporation set up under an Act of Indian Parliament on 13 March 1963. 
Statement 1 is correct: It is the sole statutory organization functioning as an apex financial and developmental institution exclusively devoted to cooperative sector. 
Statement 2 is incorrect: It is under Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare. 
Statement 3 is incorrect: its function include planning, promoting and financing programmes for production, processing, marketing, storage, export and import of agricultural produce, minor forest produce, food stuffs, certain industrial goods e.g. fertilisers, insecticides, agricultural machinery, lac, soap, kerosene oil, textile, rubber etc. NCDC will now be able to finance projects in the rural industrial cooperative sectors and for certain notified services in rural areas like water conservation, irrigation and micro irrigation, agri-insurance, agro-credit, rural sanitation, animal health, etc.

Explanation: 
Statement 1 is correct: The ring-fence system aimed at creating buffer zones to defend the East India Company’s frontiers. The states brought under the ring-fence system were assured of military assistance against external aggression—but at their own expense
Statement 2 is correct: Under the Subsidiary Alliance system, the allying Indian state’s ruler was compelled to accept the permanent stationing of a British force within his territory and to pay a subsidy for its maintenance. In return, the British would defend the ruler from his enemies and adopt a policy of non interference in the internal matters of the allied state 
Statement 3 is correct: In 1787, the East India Company first insisted that the subsidiary state should not have foreign relations. This was included in the treaty with the Nawab of Carnatic which Lord Cornwallis signed in February 1787
Statement 4 is correct: The Holkars were the last Maratha confederation to accepted the Subsidiary Alliance in 1818.

Explanation: 
Statement 1 is correct: Article 51A (g) provides that it shall be the duty of every citizen of India to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife, and to have compassion for living creatures 
Statement 2 is incorrect: The provision of “protection of monuments and places and objects of national importance” is listed as Article 49 in the Part IV on Directive Principles of State Policy. It is not a fundamental duty
Statement 3 is correct: Article 51A (k) provides that it shall be the duty of every citizen of India who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years. Part IVA of the Indian Constitution contains the Fundamental Duties which list out a set of duties to be performed by the citizens. Part IVA was added to the Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976. It contains a single article, Article 51A, which lists out 11 fundamental duties The Constitution does not say anything about enforcing these duties. They can be enforced through an act by the Parliament, for example, Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act (1971), Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972 etc.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Seaweed has stems and leaves but they do not have roots, they are rootless algae. They are the primitive, marine non-flowering marine algae, play a major role in marine ecosystems. Large seaweeds form dense underwater forests known as kelp forests, which act as underwater nurseries for fish, snails and sea urchins.
Statement 2 is correct: Many seaweeds contain anti-inflammatory and anti-microbial agents. Their known medicinal effects have been legion for thousands of years. Certain seaweeds possess powerful cancer-fighting agents that researchers hope will eventually prove effective in the treatment of malignant tumors and leukemia in people. 
Statement 3 is correct: Seaweeds derive nutrition through photosynthesis of sunlight and nutrients present in seawater. They release oxygen through every part of their bodies. They also supply organic nutrients to other marine life forms.

Explanation:
• The use of the wheel was not present in the Mesolithic period in India. The wheel was first used in the Neolithic period and in other parts of the world.
• The Mesolithic period in India, which lasted from around 10,000 to 5,000 BCE, is characterized by a number of different traits, including:
• The use of microliths: Small stone tools, such as blades and points, that were used for hunting and other tasks.
• The continuation of hunting and gathering: While agriculture and animal domestication were starting to emerge in other parts of the world, the Mesolithic people of India relied primarily on wild plant and animal resources.
• The use of pottery: Ceramic vessels were used for storing, cooking and transporting food and other items.
• The emergence of rock art: The Mesolithic period saw the emergence of rock rt, such as rock shelters and caves paintings, which give us an insight into the culture and beliefs of the time.

Explanation 
The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) is the price of a representative basket of wholesale goods. Some countries (like the Philippines) use WPI changes as a central measure of inflation. But now India has adopted new CPI to measure inflation. However, United States now report a producer price index instead. It also influences stock and fixed price markets. The WPI is published by the Economic Adviser in the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. The Wholesale Price Index focuses on the price of goods traded between corporations, rather than the goods bought by consumers, which is measured by the Consumer Price Index. The purpose of the WPI is to monitor price movements that reflect supply and demand in industry, manufacturing and construction. This helps in analyzing both macroeconomic and microeconomic conditions. The wholesale price index (WPI) is based on the wholesale price of a few relevant commodities of over 240 commodities available. The commodities chosen for the calculation are based on their importance in the region and the point of time the WPI is employed. For example, in India about 435 items were used for calculating the WPI in base year 1993-94 while the advanced base year 2011-12 uses 697 items
Statement 1 is incorrect: Only goods are taken into account not services. The index basket of the current series has a total of 697 items (117 items for Primary Articles, 16 items for Fuel & Power and 564 items for Manufactured Products.) 
Statement 2 is incorrect: It is published by the Economic Advisor, Ministry of Commerce & Industry.

Explanation:
• Zoonosisotic disease is a disease that has passed into the human population from an animal source directly or through an intermediary species. 
• Zoonotic infections can be bacterial, viral, or parasitic in nature, with animals playing a vital role in maintaining such infections. Examples of zoonosis include HIV-AIDS, Ebola, malaria, rabies, West Nile fever, and the current novel coronavirus disease (COVID-19) disease. 
• A UN Report on Zoonotic Diseases identifies seven anthropogenic driving factors leading to the emergence of zoonotic diseases: o Increased demand for animal protein o Rise in intense and unsustainable farming o Increased use and exploitation of wildlife o Unsustainable utilization of natural resources o Travel and transportation o Changes in food supply chains o Climate change crisis 
• According to the World Organization for Animal Health, more than 65% of communicable diseases are zoonotic in origin.
• The One Health strategy consisting of comprehensive health of human beings, animals and the environment needs to be implemented to control hundreds of zoonotic diseases.
• Adopting a One Health approach, which unites medical, veterinary and environmental expertise, will help governments, businesses and civil society achieve enduring health for people, animals and environments alike.

Explanation: 
Statement 1 is correct: India has recorded an increase of 1,540 square kilometres (sq km) in its forest cover, according to the biennial India’s State of Forest Report 2021, published by the Forest Survey of India. This is the increase recorded during 2019 and 2021. The last such report was published in 2019. 
Statement 2 is correct: The Forest Survey of India defines ‘forest cover’ as all lands of a hectare or more with tree patches with canopy density of more than 10 per cent. This covers all lands, irrespective of legal ownership and land use. ‘Recorded forest area’ includes only those areas recorded as forests in government records and includes pristine forests.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Area-wise Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest cover in the country followed by Arunachal Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Maharashtra
The total forest and tree cover of the country is 80.9 million hectare which is 24.62 percent of the geographical area of the country. As compared to the assessment of 2019, there is an increase of 2,261 sq km in the total forest and tree cover of the country. Out of this, the increase in the forest cover has been observed as 1,540 sq km and that in tree cover is 721 sq km. 

• Increase in forest cover has been observed in open forest followed by very dense forest. Top three states showing increase in forest cover are Andhra Pradesh (647 sq km) followed by Telangana (632 sq km) and Odisha (537 sq km). 

• In terms of forest cover as percentage of total geographical area, the top five States are Mizoram (84.53%), Arunachal Pradesh (79.33%), Meghalaya (76.00%), Manipur (74.34%) and Nagaland (73.90%). 17 states/UT’s have above 33 percent of the geographical area under forest cover. Out of these states and UT’s, five states/UTs namely Lakshadweep, Mizoram, Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Arunachal Pradesh and Meghalaya have more than 75 percent forest cover while 12 states/UTs namely Manipur, Nagaland, Tripura, Goa, Kerala, Sikkim, Uttarakhand, Chhattisgarh, Dadra & Nagar Haveli and Daman & Diu, Assam, Odisha, have forest cover between 33 percent to 75 percent.

Explanation: 
Statement (a) is correct: Treaty of Salbai (1782) guaranteed peace between the English and Marathas for 20 years.
Statement (b) is incorrect: Treaty provided that Salsette would continue to remain in the English possession, while Bassein was restored to the Marathas.
Statement (c) is correct: Treaty provided that whole of the Maratha territories conquered by the English since the Treaty of Purandar (1776) were to be restored to the Marathas
Statement (d) is correct: As per the Treaty, the English withdrew any further support to Raghunathrao and the Peshwa granted him a maintenance allowance.

Explanation: 
Statement 1 is correct: The beginning of publicly funded Western education in India can be dated from the Charter Act of 1813, which allowed the missionaries to travel to India, and provided for the allocation of funds for two specific purposes: first, encouragement of the learned natives of India and the revival and improvement of literature; secondly, the promotion of a knowledge of the sciences amongst the inhabitants of India
Statement 2 is incorrect: The English Education Act, 1935 introduced by Governor-General of India William Bentinck was based on Macaulay’s ‘Minute on Indian Education’. It was based on the theory of “downward filtration”, by which English language higher education was provided to a select class of Indian population which would later act as teachers and through them elementary education would percolate downward through regional languages, at much less public expenditure. The aim was to produce “a class of persons Indian in blood and colour, but English in taste, in opinions, in morals and intellect”
Statement 3 is correct: In 1854, Charles Wood’s Education Dispatch shifted away from the downward filtration policy followed earlier, as it recommended the extension of vernacular elementary education, which was endorsed by Lord Dalhousie 
Statement 4 is correct: For East India Company, the objective behind introducing English education was to reduce the cost of governing India by Indianising the subordinate positions in the administrative structure, particularly in the judicial and revenue branches.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: When Parliament is not in session, and ‘immediate action’ is needed, the President can issue an ordinance. The Supreme Court has clarified that the legislative power to issue ordinances is ‘in the nature of an emergency power’ given to the executive only ‘to meet an emergent situation'.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Once an Ordinance has been issued, the President may choose to withdraw the ordinance.
Statement 3 is correct: Once the ordinance is laid in Parliament, the government introduces a Bill addressing the same issue. This Bill is supposed to highlight the reasons that necessitated the issue of Ordinance.

Explanation 
Dwarfs are small firms that never grow beyond their small size, dominate the Indian Economy and hold back job creation and productivity. 
Dwarfs are the lowest contributors to employment and productivity while firms that grow over time are the biggest contributors.
In spite of ageing, small firms have low productivity and value addition while infants disproportionately increase their share and productivity
Dwarfs account for half of all the firms in organised manufacturing by number, their share in employment is 14.1% and in NVA is 7.6%. Factors promoting dwarfism:
Statements 1 is correct. Labour Regulation: India has a plethora of labour laws, regulations and rules, both at the centre and the state levels that govern the employer-employee relationship. The transaction cost inherent in complying with such regulation creates perverse incentives for firms to remain small. 
Statements 2 is correct. Tax benefits and other incentives by the government to boost MSME sectors.
Statements 3 is correct.Small Scale Reservation Policy: The Small Scale Industries (SSI) reservation policy was introduced in 1967 to promote employment growth and income redistribution. The policy promotes the reservation of products for manufacturing for firms on the basis of size.

Explanation: 
Statement 1 is correct: MoEF&CC and Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) are the two nodal Ministries which deal primarily in the coastal and ocean areas.
Statement 2 is correct: The Government has issued notifications under Environment Protection Act 1986 to regulate the activities in coastal space so as to protect the coastal environment from various anthropogenic activities. 
Statement 3 is correct: Coastal Regulation Zone Notification (CRZ) 2019 (implemented by MoEF&CC) aims to classify the coastal area into different zones and manage the activities in an integrated manner (refer image).

Explanation : 
• A solid-state battery has higher energy density than a Lithium-ion battery that uses liquid electrolyte solution. It doesn’t have a risk of explosion or fire, so there is no need to have components for safety, thus saving more space. Then we have more space to put more active materials which increase battery capacity in the battery. 
• A solid-state battery can increase energy density per unit area since only a small number of batteries are needed. For that reason, a solid-state battery is perfect to make an Electric Vehicle (EV) battery system of module and pack, which needs high capacity.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: APA is an agreement between a taxpayer and tax authority determining the transfer pricing methodology for pricing the taxpayer’s international transactions for future years. 
Statement 2 is correct: It validates transfer pricing between two interrelated companies and ensures that it is equivalent to an arm’s length price. 
Statement 3 is correct: APAs gives certainty to taxpayers, reduce disputes, enhance tax revenues and, make the country an attractive destination for foreign investments.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Rajya Sabha does not vote on Demands for Grants of the Ministries/Departments. This matter is exclusively reserved for Lok Sabha
Statement 2 is correct: As per Article 114 of the Constitution, no money can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India unless the Appropriation Bill has been passed by both the Houses 
Statement 3 is correct: If the Prime Minister is a member of the Rajya Sabha, he is always the Leader of the House. Otherwise, the Prime Minister nominates a Minister (generally the senior-most Minister) who is a member of the Rajya Sabha as Leader of the House 
Statement 4 is correct: The office of Leader of the Opposition has been given official recognition through the Salary and Allowances of Leaders of the Opposition in Parliament Act, 1977.

Explanation: 
Statement 1 is correct: The Moderates, led by Dadabhai Nauroji, had given the “drain theory” to create an all-India public opinion that British rule in India was the major cause of India’s poverty and economic backwardness. To mitigate this, they demanded severance of India’s economic subservience to Britain and development of an independent economy through involvement of Indian capital and enterprise 
Statement 2 is incorrect: Since the inception of the Imperial Legislative Council in 1861, only a handful of Indians (around 45) were nominated in around 30 years, such as Rash Behari Ghose, Syed Ahmed Khan, Kristodas Pal and V.N. Mandlik
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Moderates’ demand of a self-governing colony on the lines of Canada and Australia started in 1904 with demand of Dadabhai Nauroji, and Gopal Krishna Gokhale demanding it 1905. In the period of 1885-92, the demand of Moderates was mainly focused on constitutional reforms such as greater participation of Indians in councils and a greater control over financial subjects in councils 
Statement 4 is correct: The Indians nominated to the Imperial Legislative Council could express their views, discuss budgets and ask questions; but they were in minority, had no power to vote upon the budget or amend it. The British had intended to use the councils to incorporate the Moderates, so as to allow them to let off their “political steam”, while the impotent councils could afford to remain deaf to their criticism. So the British intended used it as a “safety-valve” against the increasingly vocal Moderates.

Explanation : 
The Chalcolithic period in Indian history, also known as the Copper Age, is characterized by the use of copper and bronze tools, advancements in metallurgy, and the development of agriculture and animal husbandry. These developments led to the growth of settled communities and the emergence of complex societies.  However, the emergence of the caste system is not considered a characteristic of the Chalcolithic period. The caste system as it is known today, emerged in the later Vedic period and it developed further during the later period of Indian history.

Explanation: 
Statement 1 is correct: The Supreme Court held the freedom of press as a fundamental right under Article 19 of the Constitution 
Statement 2 is correct: The publication of proceedings of Parliament is subject to the control of the respective Houses. The Supreme Court held the freedom of press as a fundamental right under Article 19 of the Constitution. However, in the Searchlight case, the Supreme Court held the parliamentary privilege being as a special provision and gave it an upper hand in comparison to the fundamental right of freedom of speech and expression which is an ordinary provision 
Statement 3 is correct: The Houses of the Parliament have the power to prohibit publication of its debates and proceedings. Under the Articles 105(2) and 122 of the Constitution, absolute immunity from proceedings in any court of law has been conferred on all persons connected with the publication of proceedings of either House of Parliament, if such publication is made by or under the authority of the House 
Statement 4 is correct: If a member of either House of Parliament publishes separately from the rest of the debate a speech made by him in the course of proceedings in Parliament, his printed statement becomes a separate publication, unconnected with any proceedings in Parliament, and he is legally responsible for any defamatory matter it may contain.

Explanation: 
Background: The Press Council of India is a statutory quasi-judicial autonomous authority re-established in the year 1979 under an Act of Parliament, Press Council Act, 1978. The objects of the Press Council of India as embodied in Section 13 of the Act are to preserve the freedom of the Press and to maintain and improve the standards of newspapers and news agencies in India.
Statement 1 is correct: The Press Council of India was first set up in 1966 under the Indian Press Council Act, 1965. However, in 1975 during the Emergency, the 1965 Act was repealed and the Press Council was abolished 
Statement 2 is correct: Under the powers conferred on Press Council by the Act, it has been given an advisory role, in that it can, either suo-motu or on a reference made to it by the Government under Section 13 (2) of the Act, undertake studies and express its opinion in regard to any bill, legislation, law or other matters concerning the Press and convey its opinion to the Government or the persons concerned 
Statement 3 is correct: The Chairman of the Press Council is nominated by a Committee consisting of a Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, Speaker of the Lok Sabha and a person elected amongst themselves by the 28 members of the Press Council. By convention, the Chairman candidate has been a retired judge of the Supreme Court of India.

Explanation: 
Statement 1 is correct: The Marathas under Peshwa Madhavrao I attacked Mysore, and defeated Haidar Ali in 1764 and 1766 (before the first Anglo-Mysore war in 1766-69)
Statement 2 is correct: After Haidar Ali felt that the British betrayed their promises as per the Treaty of Madras (1771), Haidar Ali took the help of French to strengthen his military capabilities. So, French war material was imported into Mysore through Mahe (a French port on the Malabar coast). The British tried to capture Mahe, which Haidar regarded to be under his protection and considered this attempt a direct challenge to his authority. This set the stage for the second Anglo-Mysore war
Statement 3 is correct: When the State of Travancore purchased Jalkottal and Cannanore from the Dutch in the Cochin state, Tipu Sultan considered this as a violation of his sovereign rights, since Cochin was a feudatory of Tipu. Tipu declared war against Travancore. Once the English sided with Travancore, the war escalated into the third Anglo-Mysore war.

Explanation
• In India, their geographical range circles a large portion of the western Himalayas, including the Union Territories of Jammu and Kashmir & Ladakh, and Sikkim, Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, and Arunachal Pradesh in the east of Himalayas. 
• The snow leopard’s habitat range extends across the mountainous regions of 12 countries across Asia: Afghanistan, Bhutan, China, India, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyz Republic, Mongolia, Nepal, Pakistan, Russia, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan. 
• The total range covers an area of close to 772,204 square miles, with 60% of the habitat found in China. However, more than 70% of snow leopard habitat remains unexplored. 
• Their thick white-gray coat spotted with large black rosettes blends in perfectly with Asia’s steep and rocky, high mountains. Because of their incredible natural camouflage, rendering them almost invisible in their surroundings, snow leopards are often referred to as the “ghost of the mountains.”

Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: A self-limiting gene, that causes the female mosquito progeny to die before reaching maturity. 
Statements 2 and 3 are correct: Under a particular red light, a fluorescent marker gene shines. This enables scientists to spot the GM mosquitos in the wild.

Explanation: 
Article 312 (2) mentions Indian Administrative Service 
Article 312 (2) mentions Indian Police Service 
Indian Foreign Service is not mentioned in the Constitution 
Article 312 (3) mentions All-India Judicial Service
Indian Forest Service is not mentioned in the Constitution

Explanation:
• Mahayana Buddhism, also known as "Greater Vehicle" Buddhism, emphasizes the concept of the Bodhisattva, which refers to someone who has attained enlightenment but delays their own nirvana in order to help others attain enlightenment.
• The goal of a Bodhisattva is to become a Buddha and help all sentient beings reach the state of enlightenment.
• This emphasis on altruism and compassion is one of the key characteristics of Mahayana Buddhism.
• Hinayana Buddhism, also known as "Lesser Vehicle" Buddhism, emphasizes the concept of the Arhat, which refers to someone who has attained enlightenment and has entered nirvana.
• The goal of an Arhat is to achieve personal liberation and attain enlightenment for oneself. This emphasis on personal spiritual development is one of the key characteristics of Hinayana Buddhism.

Explanation: 
Pair 1 is incorrect: Public Health is a State List subject 
Pair 2 is correct: Trade and Commerce is a State List subject 
Pair 3 is correct: Education is a Concurrent List subject
Pair 4 is correct: Cyber Laws is a Residuary 
• Some important Union List subjects are: Defense, Atomic Energy, Foreign Affairs, War and Peace, Banking, Railways, Post and Telegraph, Airways, Ports, Foreign Trade, Currency & Coinage. The Union Legislature alone can make laws on these matters
• Some important State List subjects are: Agriculture, Police, Prison, Local Government, Public Health, Land, Liquor, Trade and Commerce, Livestock and Animal, Husbandry, State Public Services. Normally only the State Legislature can make laws on these matters 
• Some important Concurrent List subjects are: Education, Transfer of Property other than Agricultural land, Forests, Trade Unions, Adulteration, Adoption and Succession. Both Union and State Legislature alone can make laws on these matters  Residuary Powers include all other matters not mentioned in any of the Lists. Union Legislature alone has the power to legislate on such matters.

Explanation: 
Statement 1 is correct: Incremental Capital Output Ratio explains the relationship between the level of investment made in the economy and the consequent increase in GDP. Capital output ratio is the amount of capital needed to produce one unit of output. 
Statement 2 is incorrect: A lower capital output ratio shows that only low level of investment is needed to produce a given growth rate in the economy. This is considered as a desirable situation.

Explanation: 
Statement 1 is correct: The High Ambition Coalition (HAC) for Nature and People is an intergovernmental group of 70 countries co-chaired by Costa Rica and France and by the United Kingdom as Ocean co-chair, championing a global deal for nature and people with the central goal of protecting at least 30 percent of world’s land and ocean by 2030. The 30x30 target is a global target which aims to halt the accelerating loss of species, and protect vital ecosystems that are the source of our economic security. 
Statement 2 is incorrect: India joined the High Ambition Coalition for Nature and People in 2021 and thus became the first of the BRICS bloc of major emerging economies (Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa) to join the HAC.

Explanation:
Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: The cases involving federal relations go directly to the Supreme Court under its Original Jurisdiction. The power to resolve federal cases between the Union and the States; and among the States themselves is entrusted to the Supreme Court of India. Supreme Court alone has the power to deal with such cases. 
Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Both the Supreme Court (under Articles 13 and 32) as well as High Courts (under Article 226) have been given the power of Judicial Review through which they can declare a law unconstitutional if it violates the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution. Hence, it is not under Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, since the High Court can also resolve such cases 
Pair 3 is correctly matched: Appeals from district courts will go the High Courts 
Pair 4 is correctly matched: Under Article 143 of the Constitution, the Supreme Court has special advisory jurisdiction in matters which may specifically be referred to it by the President of India. However, the Supreme Court is not bound to give advice on such matters and the President is not bound to accept such advice.

Explanation:
In economics, stagflation or recession-inflation is a situation in which the inflation rate is high, the economic growth rate slows, and unemployment remains steadily high. It presents a dilemma for economic policy, since actions intended to lower inflation may exacerbate unemployment. Economists offer two principal explanations for why stagflation occurs. First, stagflation can result when the economy faces a supply shock, such as a rapid increase in the price of oil. An unfavourable situation like that tends to raise prices at the same time as it slows economic growth by making production more costly and less profitable. Second, the government can cause stagflation if it creates policies that harm industry while growing the money supply too quickly. These two things would probably have to occur simultaneously because policies that slow economic growth do not usually cause inflation, and policies that cause inflation do not usually slow economic growth.

Explanation: 
• Minor forest produce includes non-timber items such as bamboo and other grasses, edible or useful roots, seeds, fruits, flowers and plants. A number of people from scheduled tribes and other forest dwelling communities depend on the collection and sale of such items for their livelihood.
• Reports from some forest areas show that police personnel have been preventing forest dwellers from leaving their homes to collect minor forest produce due to the restrictions.
• The new MHA guidelines have also expanded the types of plantations that will be permitted to resume activities with half their workforce.
• Earlier, tea, coffee and rubber plantations were given exemptions from the lockdown. Now, bamboo, cocoa, arecanut, and spices plantations — most of which are clustered in the southern States — will be added to the list, along with their harvesting, processing, packaging, sale and marketing.

Explanation :
Statement 1 is incorrect : Every day, member countries consult and take decisions on security issues at all levels and in a variety of fields. A “NATO decision” is the expression of the collective will of all 30 member countries since all decisions are taken by consensus .
Statement 2 is correct : It is one of the basic doctrines and has been invoked only once, that is during the 9/11 attacks on the USA . 
Statement 3 is incorrect : Montenegro became a NATO member in 2017, the latest NATO member is ‘North Macedonia’ who attained membership in 2020.

Explanation:
• Ways and Means Advances (WMA) is a facility for both the Centre and states to borrow from the RBI.
• Borrowings through Ways and Means Advances (WMA) are meant purely to help the state and centre to tide over temporary mismatches in cash flows of their receipts and expenditures. In that sense, they aren’t a source of finance per se.
• Section 17(5) of the RBI Act, 1934 authorises the central bank to lend to the Centre and state governments subject to their being repayable “not later than three months from the date of the making of the advance”.

Explanation:
The Capital Budget consists of capital receipts and capital payments. The capital receipts are loans raised by the Government from the general public.  The loan thus raised is termed as market loans, or borrowings by the Government from the Reserve Bank of India and other parties through the sale of Treasury Bills. The loans received from foreign Governments and bodies, disinvestment receipts and recoveries of loans from State and Union Territory Governments and other parties are also part of capital receipts. Capital receipts are receipts that create liabilities or reduce financial assets. They also refer to incoming cash flows. Capital receipts can be both non-debt and debt receipts. Loans from the general public, foreign governments and the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) form a crucial part of capital receipts. Borrowings, small saving deposits, provident fund schemes are treated capital receipts because they create liability and need to be returned. Disinvestment generates money by selling of assets thus it is capital receipts.

Explanation:
Rotterdam Convention: The Rotterdam Convention is a legally binding international treaty that aims to promote shared responsibility and cooperative efforts among Parties in the international trade of certain hazardous chemicals. The Convention requires exporters of these chemicals to notify importing countries of any known restrictions or bans on the chemicals, as well as any relevant hazard information. This allows importing countries to make informed decisions about the importation and use of these chemicals and helps to prevent the unintentional trade of hazardous chemicals. The Convention entered into force in 2004, and as of 2021, there are 165 Parties to the Convention.
• Stockholm 1972: The 1972 United Nations Conference on the Environment in Stockholm was the first world conference to make the environment a major issue. The participants adopted a series of principles for sound management of the environment including the Stockholm Declaration and Action Plan for the Human Environment and several resolutions.
• Stockholm 2004: The Stockholm Convention is a global treaty to protect human health and the environment from persistent organic pollutants (POPs). It was adopted in 2001 and entered into force in 2004. The Convention aims to eliminate or restrict the production and use of POPs, which are chemicals that can remain intact in the environment for long periods, be transported over long distances, and accumulate in the fatty tissue of living organisms. As of 2021, there are 181 Parties to the Convention, which includes 180 countries and the European Union.
• Kigali Convention: The Kigali Amendment to the Montreal Protocol is an amendment to phase down the production and consumption of hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), which are potent greenhouse gases. The amendment was adopted in 2016 and entered into force on January 1, 2019. It aims to reduce the global warming potential of HFCs by more than 80% over the next 30 years. The amendment has been ratified by more than 100 countries, including the United States and several other major emitting countries
• Minamata Convention: The Minamata Convention on Mercury is a global treaty to protect human health and the environment from the adverse effects of mercury. It was adopted in 2013 and entered into force on August 16, 2017. The Convention aims to control anthropogenic releases of mercury throughout its lifecycle, including mining, transport, storage, and disposal. It also calls for the phasing out of certain products and processes that are major sources of mercury emissions and releases, such as mercury in batteries, fluorescent lamps, and certain pesticides.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Educated Indians viewed this revolt as backward-looking, supportive of the feudal order, and as a reaction of traditional conservative forces to modernity.
Statement 2 is correct: The electric telegraph was used by the English command chain to be updated about the movements and strategy of the rebels. Moreover, European soldiers were equipped with the latest weapons of war, which gave the British an upper hand in the revolt .
Statement 3 is incorrect: By the end of 1859, British authority over India was fully re-established.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Nana Saheb escaped to Nepal in early 1859 after being defeated at Kanpur. In April 1859, Tantia Tope was captured while asleep in the jungles of central India, and put to death.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is Correct: Hydroponics is a method of growing plants in a soil-free environment using nutrient rich solutions. This method can be used to grow a wide variety of plants, including fruits, vegetables, and herbs, and is often used in urban agriculture or in areas with limited access to land or water. Hydroponics can be done using a variety of systems, including deep water culture, nutrient film technique, and drip irrigation. The benefits of hydroponics include increased yields, reduced water usage, and the ability to grow plants in environments where traditional farming may not be possible.
Statement 2 is Correct: Aeroponics is a method of growing plants in an air or mist environment without the use of soil or an aggregate medium. In an aeroponic system, the roots of the plants are suspended in the air and misted with a nutrient solution. This method allows for greater control of the nutrient delivery to the plants, and can result in faster growth and higher yields compared to traditional soil-based gardening. Aeroponics is often used in indoor gardening, vertical farming, and in space exploration. The benefits of aeroponics include reduced water usage, less disease, and the ability to easily monitor and adjust the nutrient levels for the plants.
Statement 3 is Correct: Geoponics is a method of growing plants using a combination of soil and water based nutrient delivery systems. This method of gardening is similar to traditional gardening methods, but it can be more efficient as it allows for better control of the nutrient delivery to the plants. Additional Information: It can also be used to improve the quality of the soil by incorporating organic matter, improving soil structure and increasing water retention. This method can be used to grow a wide variety of plants, including fruits, vegetables, and herbs, and is often used in urban agriculture or in areas with limited access to land or water.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: India assumed the chairmanship of the Wassenaar Arrangement (WA) on 1 January 2023, for a period of one year. India will take over chairmanship from Ireland.
Statement 2 is correct: The Wassenaar Arrangement is a multilateral export control regime to contribute to regional and international security and stability, by promoting transparency and greater responsibility in transfers of conventional arms and dual-use goods and technologies. Its Secretariat is located in Vienna (Austria). 
Statement 3 is correct: There are 42 Participating States in the Wassenaar Arrangement. The following 33 countries were founding members when the Wassenaar Arrangement became operational in 1996: Argentina, Australia, Austria, Belgium, Bulgaria, Canada, Czech Republic, Denmark, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Hungary, Ireland, Italy, Japan, Luxembourg, Netherlands, New Zealand, Norway, Poland, Portugal, Republic of Korea, Romania, Russian Federation, Slovakia, Spain, Sweden, Switzerland, Türkiye, Ukraine, United Kingdom, United States. Nine countries have joined the WA afterwards with India being the latest entrant in 2017. 
Statement 4 is incorrect: Except China, all other permanent members of the UN Security Council are members of WA.

Explanation: 
Statement 1 is incorrect: Repo rate is the rate at which the RBI lends money to commercial banks.
Statement 2 is correct: Reduction in the Repo rate is a monetary policy measure to boost consumption, investment and economic growth.
Statement 3 is correct: Reduction in repo rate lead to the high availability of fund thus increasing inflation.

Explanation: 
Nayakas were feudal lords who held control over specific territories and paid tribute to the king. They were appointed by the king to govern a specific region or province, and were responsible for maintaining law and order, collecting taxes, and maintaining the loyalty of the people in their territories. They were also expected to provide military support to the king when needed.
Nayankaras were officials appointed by the king to collect taxes and maintain law and order in a specific region or province. They were responsible for the overall administration of their assigned territories and were expected to ensure that the local population paid their taxes and obeyed the laws and regulations set by the empire. Amara-nayakas were local governors appointed by the king to rule over a specific region or province. They were responsible for the overall administration of their assigned territories and were expected to ensure that the local population paid their taxes and obeyed the laws and regulations set by the empire. Palayakkarar were feudal lords who held control over specific territories and paid tribute to the king. They were appointed by the king to govern a specific region or province and were responsible for maintaining law and order, collecting taxes, and maintaining the loyalty of the people in their territories.

Explanation: 
Statement 1 is incorrect: As per Article 324 (2), the Election Commission of India (ECI) can either be a single member or a multi-member body. ECI consists of Chief Election Commissioner (as the Chairman of the ECI) and such number of other Election Commissioners, if any, as the President may from time-to-time fix. Originally the commission had only one election commissioner but after the Election Commissioner Amendment Act 1989, it has been made a multi-member body. The commission consists of one Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners.
Statement 2 is correct: To assist the Election Commission of India there is a Chief Electoral Officer in every state, as per the section 13A of the Representation of the People Act 1950, read with section 20 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. They are appointed by the Election Commission of India
Statement 3 is correct: The Election Commission is not responsible for the conduct of local body elections. The State Election Commissioners work independently of the Election Commission of India and each has its own sphere of operation.

Note : Article 324 in Part XV of the Indian Constitution provides for an independent Election Commission for the ‘superintendence, direction and control of the electoral roll and the conduct of elections’ in India.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Brahmo Samaj taught that prayers, meditation, and readings of the Upanishads were to be the forms of worship. Idolatry and meaningless rituals were not allowed in the Samaj buildings.
Statement 2 is correct: Raja Ram Mohan Roy and Brahmo Samaj’s progressive ideas were met with strong opposition from orthodox elements like Raja Radhakant Deb who organised the Dharma Sabha to counter Brahmo Samaj.

Explanation: 
Statement 1 is correct: It is the grant of permission by the government to entities to use, manufacture, import or sell a patented invention without the patent owner’s consent. 
Statement 2 is incorrect: So far India has issued compulsory licensing only for a cancer drug and most of the generic drugs are available in market only after the time period allotted to patent is over Compulsory licensing is permitted under the WTO’s TRIPS (IPR) Agreement provided conditions such as ‘national emergencies, other circumstances of extreme urgency and anti-competitive practices’ are fulfilled