Full Length Test - 1 (Geography, Economics and Current Affairs Special)

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1

With reference to Urea-based fertilizers, consider the following statements:

  1. India is the largest importer of Urea in the world.
  2. Department of Fertilizers has made it mandatory for all the domestic producers to produce 100% urea as Neem Coated Urea.
  3. Under Nutrient Based Subsidy Scheme, a fixed amount of subsidy is provided for Urea fertilizers depending on its nutrient content.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• India is the top country by urea import in the world. As of 2020, urea import in India was 11.2 million tonnes that accounts for 21.05% of the world's urea import.
• Department of Fertilizers (DoF) has made it mandatory for all the domestic producers to produce 100% urea as Neem Coated Urea (NCU).
• Subsidy on Urea: The Centre pays subsidy on urea to fertiliser manufacturers on the basis of cost of production at each plant and the units are required to sell the fertiliser at the
government-set Maximum Retail Price (MRP).
• Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS) Scheme: It has been implemented from April 2010 by the Department of Fertilizers. Under NBS, a fixed amount of subsidy decided on an annual basis is provided on each grade of subsidized Phosphatic & Potassic (P&K) fertilizers, except for Urea, depending on its nutrient content. It aims at ensuring the balanced use of fertilizers, improving agricultural productivity, promoting the growth of the indigenous fertilizers industry, and also reducing the burden of Subsidy.

2

As per the Seventh Schedule of Indian Constitution, the subject of Sports comes under which of the following list?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

The Subject of ‘Sports‘ come under the State List of Indian Constitution.
• Recently, the Supreme Court has asked the Centre and States to respond to a report recommending sports to be expressly made a fundamental right under Article 21 of the Constitution. Further, the report submitted by the court‘s amicus curiae (friend of the court) suggested that the ?narrow phrase ‘sport‘ be replaced by ?physical literacy‘, which is a term ?firmly established as a right in the leading sporting nations of the world?.
• The report was filed in a Public Interest Litigation (PIL) to amend the Constitution to make ‘sports‘ a fundamental right and amend the Directive Principles of State Policy to include an obligation to ?strive for promotion of sports education. It has urged that sports should be transferred to the Concurrent List to facilitate cooperative work between the Centre and states (at present, sports is a state subject).

3

With reference to India Semiconductor Mission, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It envisions to enable India to emerge as a global hub for electronics manufacturing and design
  2. The programme aims to provide financial support only to domestic companies that are investing in semiconductor business.
  3. It was launched under the aegis of Ministry of Electronics and IT.

    Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

India Semiconductor Mission (ISM) was launched in 2021 with a total financial outlay of Rs76,000 crore under the aegis of the Ministry of Electronics and IT (MeitY).
• Vision: To build a vibrant semiconductor and display design and innovation ecosystem to enable India‘s emergence as a global hub for electronics manufacturing and design.
• It is part of the comprehensive program for the development of sustainable semiconductor and display ecosystem in the country. The programme aims to provide financial support to
companies investing in semiconductors, display manufacturing and design ecosystem.
• Envisioned to be led by global experts in the Semiconductor and Display industry, ISM will serve as the nodal agency for efficient, coherent and smooth implementation of the schemes.
• It will also promote and facilitate indigenous Intellectual Property (IP) generation and encourage, enable and incentivize Transfer of Technologies (ToT). ISM will also enable collaborations and partnership programs with national and international agencies, industries and institutions for catalyzing collaborative research, commercialization and skill development.

4

Consider the following statements:

1. Globally, India ranks first in terms of pharmaceutical production by value

2. India is self-sufficient in terms of producing Active Pharmaceutical Ingredients and other intermediaries of pharma sector.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:
  • India is the largest provider of generic drugs globally. It supplies over 50% of global demand for various vaccines, 40% of generic demand in the US and 25% of all medicine in the UK. The Indian pharmaceutical market is estimated at USD 40 billion and pharma companies export another USD 20 billion. However, this is a miniscule portion of the USD 1.27-trillion global pharmaceutical market. Globally, India ranks 3rd in terms of pharmaceutical production by volume and 14th by value.
  • Despite being a leading supplier of high-quality medicines to several countries, Indian pharmaceutical industry is highly dependent on China for raw materials. These raw materials are called the Active Pharmaceutical Ingredients (API), also known as bulk drugs. Indian drug-makers import around 70% of their total bulk drug requirements from China.
5

Which of the following countries belong to the group of Nordic countries?
1. Norway
2. Sweden
3. Denmark
4. Finland
5. Iceland
6. Switzerland
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• Nordic countries are a geographical and cultural region in Northern Europe and the North Atlantic. It includes the sovereign states of Denmark, Finland, Iceland, Norway and Sweden; the autonomous territories of the Faroe Islands and Greenland; and the autonomous region of Aland.
• The Nordic countries cluster near the top in numerous metrics of national performance, including education, economic competitiveness, civil liberties, quality of life and human development.

6

World Press Freedom Index is released by which of the following?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• World Press Freedom Index has been published every year since 2002 by Reporters Sans Frontieres (RSF) or Reporters without Borders.
• Based in Paris, RSF is an independent NGO with consultative status with the United Nations, UNESCO, the Council of Europe, and the International Organization of the Francophonie (OIF). The Index ranks countries and regions according to the level of freedom available to journalists. However, it is not an indicator on the quality of journalism.
• India has fallen eight places from 142nd to 150th in the 2022 among the 180 countries. India‘s position has been consistently falling in the index since 2016 when it was ranked 133.

7

Consider the following statements:

1. Food poisoning and Diarrhea are caused by bacteria only and not by viruses

2. Shigella is a genus of bacteria that causes an infection called shigellosis, which is a leading cause of diarrhea.

3. Currently there are no vaccines available for shigellosis

4. Shigella can be transmitted through person-to-person contact

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• The most common cause of diarrhoea is an infection of the intestines due to either a virus, bacterium, or parasite - a condition also known as gastroenteritis. Shigella is a genus of bacteria that causes an infection called shigellosis. It is the second leading cause of diarrhoea (after Rotavirus) worldwide and the third leading cause of death in children less than 5 years old. Symptoms include diarrhoea, fever, stomach cramps which can last for seven days.
• Transmission: Shigella is generally transmitted through contaminated food or water, or through person-to-person contact. Shigellosis is primarily a disease of poor and crowded communities that do not have adequate sanitation or safe water.
• Vaccines: Currently, there are no vaccines available for shigellosis. Although shigellosis is primarily self-limiting, antibiotics are recommended for reducing illness duration and for preventing transmission. Handwashing is said to reduce shigella transmission by 70%.

8

Which of the following statements regarding Bal Aadhar initiative is not correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:

  •  UIDAI has introduced ?Bal Aadhar‘ for children below the age of 5 years. Bal Aadhaar works as a facilitator in availing several welfare benefits, and also works as a digital photo identity for children right from birth.
  •  Collection of biometric (fingerprints and iris) is a key feature in issuing Aadhaar as the same is required to establish uniqueness based on de-duplication of these biometrics. However, for Aadhaar enrolment of children in the age group of 0-5 years, these biometrics are not collected.
  • Aadhaar enrolment of children in the age group of 0-5 years are carried out based on facial image of the child, and biometric authentication of the parent/guardian (having a valid Aadhaar). A proof of relationship document (preferably birth certificate) is collected at the time of enrolment for Bal Aadhaar.
9

With reference to PM Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana, which of the following statement is not correct?
1. It provides free foodgrains to help the poor fight the battle against Covid-19
2. Its nodal ministry is Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution
3. Its beneficiaries are identified based on Census 2011
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• PMGKAY is a part of the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Package (PMGKP) to help the poor fight the battle against Covid-19. The scheme aimed at providing each person who is covered under the National Food Security Act 2013 with an additional 5 kg grains (wheat or rice) for free, in addition to the 5 kg of subsidised food grain already provided through the Public Distribution System (PDS).
• It was initially announced for a three-month period (April, May and June 2020), covering 80 crore ration cardholders. Later it was extended till September 2022.
• Its nodal Ministry is the Ministry of Finance.
• The benefit of the free ration can be availed through portability by any migrant labour or beneficiary under the One Nation One Ration Card (ONORC) plan from nearly 5 lakh ration shops across the country.

10

Which of the following best describes the term ‘Sagittarius’, sometimes mentioned in the news?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• The first photograph of Sagittarius A, a supermassive black hole about 26,000 light years from Earth and situated at the centre of the Milky Way, was revealed by astronomers of the Event Horizon Telescope (EHT). It possesses 4 million times the mass of our sun.
• The image of Sagittarius A (SgrA) gave support to the idea that the compact object at the centre of our galaxy is indeed a black hole, strengthening Einstein‘s general
theory of relativity. The image was obtained using the EHT‘s global network of observatories working collectively to observe radio sources associated with black holes. It showed a ring of light -super-heated disrupted matter and radiation circling at tremendous speed at the edge of the event horizon - around a region of darkness representing the actual black hole.

11

Department of Biotechnology has recently released the Guidelines for Safe Assessment of Genome Edited Plants 2022. In this context, consider the following statements:
1. Regulation of GM crops in India is done under the rules of Environment Protection Act 1986
2. The latest Guidelines allow the commercial cultivation of GM crops for food use in India
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• GM crops in India are regulated under the rules for the manufacture, use, import, export and storage of hazardous microorganisms, genetically engineered organisms or cells, 1989?, mentioned in the Environmental Protection Act, 1986.
• India does not allow the commercial cultivation of GM crops for food use.
• Bt-cotton is the only GM crop allowed for cultivation in India. Recently Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) granted environmental clearance for indigenously developed GM mustard seeds, paving the way for commercial use of the first GM food crop.

12

The “Global Report on Assistive Technology (GReAT)”, sometimes seen in the news, is published by which of the following organization?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• Recently, the World Health Organisation (WHO) and United Nations Children‘s Fund (UNICEF) jointly launched the first Global Report on Assistive Technology (GReAT).
• This report is the culmination of the 71st World Health Assembly resolution in 2018 to prepare a global report on effective access to assistive technology. The report assumes significance as 90% of those who need assistive technology do not have access to it globally and including assistive technology into health systems is critical for progress towards the targets in the Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) relating to Universal Health Coverage (UHC).

13

The I2U2 Grouping, sometimes seen in the news, includes which of the following countries?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• I2U2 (India-Israel-UAE-USA) Grouping was conceptualized during the meeting of the Foreign Ministers of the four countries held on 18 October 2021. Each country also has Sherpa-level interactions regularly to discuss the possible areas of cooperation. It is also referred to as the ?West Asian Quad‘ and was referred to as the ?International Forum for Economic Cooperation‘ back in 2021.
• I2U2 is aimed to encourage joint investments in six mutually identified areas such as: Water, Energy, Transportation, Space, Health, and Food security. It intends to mobilize private sector capital and expertise to help modernize the infrastructure, and low carbon development pathways for our industries, improve public health and promote the development of critical emerging and green technologies.

14

With reference to PM Gati Shakti Scheme, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It aims to ensure integrated planning and implementation of infrastructure projects to bring down logistics cost
2. It will subsume the “National Infrastructure Pipeline” program
3. It aims to extend 4G connectivity to all villages
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• Gati Shakti scheme or National Master Plan for multi-modal connectivity plan, with the aim of coordinated planning and execution of infrastructure projects to bring down logistics costs. It is a national master plan for infrastructure development to give impetus to 21st century India.
• Gati shakti is a digital platform that will bring 16 ministries including railways and roadways together for integrated planning and coordinated implementation of infrastructure connectivity projects. This will help in removing long-standing issues such as disjointed planning, lack of standardization, problems with clearances, and timely creation and utilization of infrastructure capacities.
• The Gati Shakti scheme will subsume the Rs 110 lakh crore National Infrastructure Pipeline that was launched in 2019.
• The portal will offer 200+ layers of geospatial data, including that on existing infrastructure. It will also allow various government departments to track, in real-time and at one centralized place, the progress of various projects. It will help different departments to prioritize their projects through cross-sectoral interactions.

15

In the context of Places of Worship Act 1991, consider the following statements:
1. The Act facilitates conversion of a place of worship based on its historical importance and archeological evidence
2. The disputed site at Ayodhya was converted recently under the provisions of this Act

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• The Places of Worship Act, 1991, seeks to prohibit the conversion of a place of worship and maintain its religious character as was at the time of India‘s Independence on August 15,
1947.

• Exemption: The disputed site at Ayodhya was exempted from the Act. Due to this exemption, the trial in the Ayodhya case proceeded even after the enforcement of this law. Besides the Ayodhya dispute, the Act also exempted:
• Any place of worship which is an ancient and historical monument, or an archaeological site covered by the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 1958.
• A suit that has been finally settled or disposed of.
• Any dispute that has been settled by the parties or conversion of any place that took place by acquiescence before the Act commenced.

16

Which of the following statements regarding International Labour Organization (ILO) is not correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• International Labour Organization (ILO) was established in 1919 by the Treaty of Versailles as an affiliated agency of the League of Nations. ILO became the first affiliated specialized agency of the UN in 1946.
• It is a tripartite U.N. agency established in 1919. The basis of the ILO is the tripartite principle, i.e., the negotiations within the organization are held between the representatives of governments, employers and workers of 187 member States.
• The ILO brings together governments, employers, and workers of 187 member States, to set labour standards, develop policies and devise programs promoting decent work for all women and men. The main aims of the ILO are to promote rights at work, encourage decent employment opportunities, enhance social protection, and strengthen dialogue on work-related issues.
• ILO received the Nobel Peace Prize in 1969 for improving peace among classes, pursuing decent work and justice for workers and providing technical assistance to
other developing nations.
• India is a founding member of the ILO, and it has been a permanent member of the ILO Governing Body since 1922. In India, the first ILO Office was started in 1928.

17

Consider the following pairs:

                 Survey                                                           Conducted by
1. National Achievement Survey                         –     Ministry of Education
2. Annual Status of Education Report                –     Pratham NGO
3. School Education Quality Index                      –     NITI Aayog
4. State of the Education Report for India          –     UNESCO

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• The Annual Survey of Education Report (ASER) survey, which is facilitated by Pratham Education Foundation, is the oldest survey of its kind in the country. It is well regarded for the range of insights it provides on levels of foundational learning at the elementary level. It uses Census 2011 as the sampling frame and continues to be an important national source of information about children‘s foundational skills across the country.
• School Education Quality Index (SEQI) has been developed by NITI Aayog to evaluate the performance of States and Union Territories (UTs) in the school education sector. Developed through a collaborative process including key stakeholders such as the Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD), the World Bank and sector experts, the index consists of 30 critical indicators that assess the delivery of quality education.
• On the Occasion of the World Teachers‘ Day (5th October), the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) launched its 2021 State of the Education Report (SOER) for India: ?No Teacher, No Class?. This third edition of the State of Education Report, focused on the theme of teachers, teaching and teacher education, underscores that the work of teaching is complex.

18

Consider the following statements regarding the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS):
1. CDS acts as the permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee
2. He heads the Department of Military Affairs in the Ministry of Defence
3. CDS acts as the Chairman of the Defence Acquisition Council
4. He is the head of the Nuclear Command Authority
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• CDS is a four-star General/Officer who acts as the Principal Military Advisor to the Defence Minister on all tri-services (Army, Navy, and Indian Air Force) matters. CDS acts as the permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee which will also have three service chiefs as members. He also head the newly created Department of Military Affairs (DMA) in the Ministry of Defence.
• Defence Acquisition Council is the highest decision-making body in the Defence Ministry for deciding on new policies and capital acquisitions for the three services
(Army, Navy and Air Force) and the Indian Coast Guard. The Minister of Defence is the Chairman of the Council.
• In 2003, the Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) constituted the Political Council and the Executive Council of the NCA. The Executive Council gives its opinion to the Political Council, which authorises a nuclear attack when deemed necessary. While the Executive Council is chaired by the National Security Advisor (NSA), the Political Council is chaired by the Prime Minister.

19

The “Indo-Pacific Maritime Domain Awareness” initiative was rolled out by which of the
following organization?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
QUAD grouping consisting of India, Australia, Japan, and the US rolled out an IndoPacific Maritime Domain Awareness (MDA) initiative for information sharing and maritime surveillance across the Indo Pacific region.
• It aims to track ?dark shipping? and to build a ?faster, wider, and more accurate maritime picture of near-real-time activities in partners‘ waters integrating three critical regions in the Indo-Pacific - the Pacific Islands, Southeast Asia, and the Indian Ocean Region (IOR). Dark ships are vessels with their Automatic Identification System (AIS) - a transponder system - switched off so as not to be detectable.
• It will also allow tracking other tactical-level activities, such as rendezvous at sea, as well as improve partners‘ ability to respond to climate and humanitarian events and to protect their fisheries, which are vital to many Indo-Pacific economies.

20

India bears the world’s highest health and economic burden due to lead poisoning. Which of the following have been the sources of lead exposure in India?
1. Paint
2. Batteries
3. Cosmetics
4. Gasoline
5. In-utero transmission
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:

• A report by Niti Aayog and the Council of Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR) has found that India bears the world‘s highest health and economic burden due to lead poisoning.
• Lead is a naturally occurring toxic metal found in the Earth‘s crust. Lead in the body is distributed to the brain, liver, kidney and bones. It is stored in the teeth and bones, where it accumulates over time. Common Sources of Lead Exposure are:
• Lead in water from the use of leaded pipes;
• Lead from active industry, such as mining and the unsound recycling of used lead-acid batteries (ULABs);
• Lead-based paint and pigments;
• Leaded gasoline (which has declined considerably in recent decades, but was a major historical source);
• Lead solder in food cans; and
• Lead in spices, cosmetics, ayurvedic medicines, toys and other consumer products.
• Children are also exposed to lead in-utero through exposure of their mothers, with adverse impacts on neuro-behavioural development.

21

In the context of recent Supreme Court verdict on GST Act, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Union has the exclusive power to make laws on Goods and Services Tax

2. Recommendations of GST Council are binding on the States

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:

 Recently, the Supreme Court held that Union and State legislatures have equal, simultaneous and unique powers? to make laws on Goods and Services Tax (GST). Centre and the States are autonomous, independent and even competing units? while making GST laws. SC held that the recommendations of the GST Council are not binding on them. The recommendations of the GST Council are the product of a collaborative dialogue involving the Union and the states. They are recommendatory in nature. The recommendations only have a persuasive value. To regard them as binding would disrupt fiscal federalism when both the Union and the states are conferred equal power to legislate on GST.

22

In the context of Indian advancements in Information Technology, consider the following statements:

1. 5Gi is a Made in India 5G standard which will act as an alternative to global 5G standards

2. PARAM Siddhi-AI is the fastest supercomputer in the world built under National Supercomputing Mission

3. National AI Portal aims to develop an AI-ready robust workforce and use AI to foster economic growth

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• 5G Radio Interface Technology, called 5Gi is a locally designed telecommunication network that has been designed by IIT Hyderabad, IIT Madras and the Centre of Excellence in Wireless Technology. The technology will be an alternative to the global 5G standards. 5Gi offers more range at a lower frequency, which is the opposite of 5G.

• National AI Portal, launched in 2020, is a joint initiative by the Ministry of Electronics and IT (MeitY), National e-Governance Division (NeGD) and NASSCOM (National Association of Software and Services Companies).
• In 2015, the National Supercomputing Mission was launched to enhance the research capacities and capabilities in the country by connecting them to form a Supercomputing grid, with National Knowledge Network (NKN) as the backbone.

23

The “Transnistria” region, often heard in the news, is located in which of the following
areas?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• Transnistria is a de facto state lying between Moldova to its west and Ukrainetowards its east.
• Transnistria is described as a ?remnant of the Soviet Union?, Transnistria declared independence like Moldova did soon after the break-up of the Soviet Union. When Moldovan troops attempted to take over the territory in 1990-1992, Transnistria was able to resist them because of Russian soldiers based in Transnistria. Since then, it has remained free of Moldovan control.
• Transnistria‘s strategic location is important to the next phase of Russia‘s war on Ukraine. There are fears in the West and in Ukraine that Transnistria could be used as a staging ground in the conflict between Russia and Ukraine. Russia might use Transnistria to cut off the southwestern corner of Ukraine, leading to direct Russian intervention inside Moldova.

24

The Mission “Digital India BHASHINI”, recently launched by the government, can be best described as:

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• Digital India BHASHINI [BHASHa INterface for India] is India‘s Artificial Intelligence (AI) led language translation platform. A Bhashini Platform will make Artificial Intelligence (AI) and Natural Language Processing (NLP) resources available to MSME (Medium, Small and Micro Enterprises), Startups and Individual Innovators in the public domain.
• Bhashini Platform is a part of the National Language Translation Mission. The mission aims to ensure that as more Indians connect to the internet, they are able to access global content in their own languages.

25

In the context of National Coal Gasification Mission, consider the following statements:

1. Coal gasification is a process in which coal is partially oxidized to form Syngas

2. It will help to reduce the imports of coking coal

3. Coal gasification will help in powering a Hydrogen Economy in India

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• The Ministry of Coal has prepared a National Mission document to achieve 100 MT (Million Tonnes) Coal Gasification by 2030. Coal gasification is a process in which coal is partially oxidised with air, oxygen, steam or carbon dioxide to form a fuel gas.
• It produces Syngas which is a mixture consisting primarily of methane (CH4), carbon monoxide (CO), hydrogen (H2), carbon dioxide (CO2) and water vapour (H2O). Steel companies typically use coking coal in their manufacturing process. Most of the coking coal is imported and is expensive. To cut costs, plants can use syngas, which comes from coal gasification plants in the place of coking coal.
• The hydrogen obtained from coal gasification can be used for various purposes such as making ammonia, powering a Hydrogen Economy. India‘s hydrogen demand is likely to increase to 11.7 million tonnes by 2030 from 6.7 million tonnes per year as of now.

26

The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) was constituted under which of the following Act?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was enacted in 1974 to provide for the prevention and control of water pollution, and for the maintaining or restoring of wholesomeness of water in the country.
• CPCB is a statutory organisation which was constituted in September 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. It was entrusted with the powers and functions under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981. It serves as a field formation and also provides technical services to the Ministry of Environment and Forests under the provisions of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

27

With reference to the Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) in India, consider the following statements:
1. APEDA is a statutory body
2. It is attached to the Ministry of Commerce and Industry
3. APEDA’s Head Office is situated in Mumbai
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) was established by the Government of India under the Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority Act passed by the Parliament in December 1985.
• It was set up by the Ministry of Commerce and industry. APEDA is the premier body of export promotion of fresh vegetables and fruits. It provides the crucial interface between farmers, storehouses, packers, exporters, surface transport, ports, Railways, Airways, and all others engaged in export trade to the international market.
• APEDA has marked its presence in almost all agro-potential states of India and has been providing services to agri-export community through its head office in New Delhi and 15 Regional offices.

28

Which of the following belong to the category of Endorheic Lakes?
1. Aral Sea
2. Pangong Tso
3. Great Salt Lake
4. Lake Chad
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• An endorheic lake (also called a sink lake or terminal lake) is a collection of water within an endorheic basin, or sink, with no evident outlet. Endorheic lakes are generally saline as a result of being unable to get rid of solutes left in the lake by evaporation. These lakes can be used as indicators of anthropogenic change, such as irrigation or climate change, in the areas surrounding them.
• Some of the important Endorheic lakes across the world are:
• Africa - Afar Depression, Great Rift Valley in East Africa, Lake Chad in Central Africa
• Asia - Aral Sea, Caspian Sea, Dead Sea, Pangong Tso
• North America - Devil's Lake, Lake Enriquillo, Great Salt Lake ? Australia – Lake Eyre

29

Consider the following statements regarding e-Shram Portal:
1. It aims to build a comprehensive National Database of Unorganized Workers in the country
2. The portal is developed by Ministry of Labour and Employment
3. The portal will boost the last mile delivery of welfare schemes in the country
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• e-Shram portal was launched by Ministry of Labour and Employment in 2021. It is aimed at building a comprehensive National Database of Unorganized Workers (NDUW) in the country. It aims to register unorganized workers such as construction labourers, migrant workforce, street vendors, and domestic workers, among others. The workers will be issued an e-Shram card containing a 12-digit unique number.
• If a worker is registered on the e-SHRAM portal and meets with an accident, he will be eligible for Rs 2.0 Lakh on death or permanent disability and Rs 1.0 lakh on partial disability.

30

PM recently launched the global initiative LiFE Movement. It is associated with which of the following?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• The idea of LiFE (Lifestyle for the Environment) was introduced by India during the 26th United Nations Climate Change Conference of the Parties (COP26) in Glasgow  in 2021. The idea promotes an environmentally conscious lifestyle that focuses on “mindful and deliberate utilization” instead of “mindless and wasteful consumption.”

• With the launch of the Mission, the prevalent "use-and-dispose" economy governed by mindless and destructive consumption will be replaced by a circular economy, defined by conscious and deliberate consumption.
• It seeks to leverage the strength of social networks to influence social norms surrounding climate. The Mission plans to create and nurture a global network of individuals, namely ‘Pro-Planet People‘(P3). P3 will have a shared commitment to adopt and promote environmentally friendly lifestyles

31

Consider the following statements:
1. Cheetahs are the only big cats that cannot roar
2. Cheetahs occur in a variety of habitats like Savannahs, mountain ranges and hilly desert terrains
3. Cheetahs are solitary animals
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• Cheetah is a large cat native to Africa and central Iran. It is the fastest land animal.
• Cheetahs are the only big cat that cannot roar. The cheetah is unable to roar due to the presence of a sharp-edged vocal fold within the larynx.
• The cheetah occurs in a variety of habitats such as savannahs in the Serengeti, arid mountain ranges in the Sahara and hilly desert terrain in Iran. Historically ranging throughout most of Sub-Saharan Africa and extending eastward into the Middle East and to central India, the cheetah is now distributed mainly in small, fragmented populations in central Iran and southern, eastern and north-western Africa.
• The cheetah lives in three main social groups: females and their cubs, male "coalitions", and solitary males. While females lead a nomadic life searching for prey in large home ranges, males are more sedentary and instead establish much smaller territories in areas with plentiful prey and access to females.

32

With reference to e-Transmission Moratorium, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It was imposed by the World Trade Organization
2. It directs members nations not to impose custom duties on e-transmission
3. India is in favor of continuation of moratorium as it will boost the e-commerce sector in developing countries
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• The WTO members had agreed not to impose customs duties on electronic transmissions since 1998 and the moratorium has been periodically extended at successive Ministerial Conferences (MC).
• The moratorium is on digitizable products like photographic films, cinematographic films, printed matter, music, media, software, and video games.
• At the 12th MC in June 2022, many WTO members are sought temporary extension of the moratorium till 13th MC, but India does not want this time to continue this further. India and South Africa on several occasions have asked the organization to revisit the issue and have highlighted the adverse impact of the moratorium on developing countries. India wants the WTO to intensify the work programme on the ecommerce sector.

33

The Abraham Accords, often seen in the news, refers to:

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• Abraham Accord between Israel, the United Arab Emirates and Bahrain is mediatedb by the USA.
• As per the agreements, the UAE and Bahrain will establish:
• Embassies and exchange ambassadors.
• Working together with Israel across a range of sectors, including tourism, trade, healthcare and security.
• The Abraham Accords also open the door for Muslims around the world to visit the historic sites in Israel and to peacefully pray at Al-Aqsa Mosque in Jerusalem, the third holiest site in Islam.

34

With respect to the “Leadership for Industry Transition” (LeadIT) initiative, consider the following statements:
1. It was launched by the Governments of India and the USA
2. It was launched on the sidelines of UNFCCC CoP 27 at Sharm El Sheikh
3. It is a voluntary initiative for promoting low-carbon transition through active participation of private sector companies

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• Leadership for Industry Transition (LeadIT) initiative was launched by the governments of Sweden and India at the UN Climate Action Summit in 2019 and is supported by the World Economic Forum.
• LeadIT members subscribe to the notion that energy-intensive industries can and must progress on low-carbon pathways, aiming to achieve net-zero carbon emissions by 2050.
• The LeadIT initiative lays specific focus on hard to abate sectors that are key stakeholders in the global climate action and require specific interventions. It gathers countries and companies that are committed to action to achieve the Paris Agreement.
• It is a voluntary initiative for promoting low-carbon transition through active participation of private sector companies. Especially in the sectors like Iron & Steel, Aluminium, Cement and Concrete, petrochemicals, fertilisers, bricks, heavy-duty transport.
• Its Secretariat is hosted by Stockholm Environment Institute (SEI), Sweden.

35

Consider the following statements with respect to India’s Liquid Mirror Telescope (LMT):
1. It is the world’s first Liquid Mirror Telescope to be commissioned for astronomy
2. It is positioned at Girawali Observatory, Pune
3. LMT is a stationary telescope and does not move along the direction of specific objects in the sky
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• Devasthal Observatory campus owned by Aryabhatta Research Institute of Observational Sciences (ARIES), Nainital in Uttarakhand has set-up the International Liquid-Mirror Telescope (ILMT).
• It has become the world's first Liquid-Mirror Telescope (LMT) to be commissioned for astronomy and also one of its kind to be operational anywhere in the world. Asteroids, supernovae, space debris and all other celestial objects will be observed using ILMT from an altitude of 2,450 metres in the Himalayas.
• A LMT is a stationary telescope whereas a conventional telescope moves along the direction of the object of interest in the sky. A LMT will survey and capture any and all possible celestial objects such as stars, galaxies, supernovae explosions, asteroids and even space debris. However, a conventional captures just a piece of sky at a given point of time.
• LMT comprises mirrors with a reflective liquid (ILMT has mercury as reflective liquid).

36

The objective of recently launched PM-DevINE initiative is to:

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• Prime Minister?s Development Initiative for North-East Region (PM-DevINE). PMDevINE was announced in the Union Budget 2022-23 to address development gaps in the North-Eastern Region (NER).
• The new scheme, to be implemented during the remaining four years of the 15th Finance Commission from 2022-23 to 2025-26 have an outlay of Rs.6,600 crore. The PM-DevINE is in addition to the quantum of resources available for the development of the NE region. It will not be a substitute for existing central and state schemes.
• The scheme will be implemented by the Ministry of Development of North-Eastern Region through North-Eastern Council or Central Ministries/ agencies.

37

Government-e-Marketplace platform is open for procurement by which of the following entities:
1. Central Ministries
2. Public Sector Enterprises
3. Private Sector Enterprises
4. Cooperatives
5. Local-Government Bodies
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• The Government e Marketplace (GeM) was launched in 2016 by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, Government of India to create an open and transparent procurement platform for Government buyers. A Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) by the name of Government e- Marketplace (GeM SPV) was set up as the National Public Procurement Portal.
• At present, the platform is open for procurement by all government buyers: central and state ministries, departments, public sector enterprises, autonomous institutions, local bodies, etc. As per existing mandate, GeM is not available for use by private sector buyers. Suppliers (sellers) can be from across all segments: government or private. The Union Cabinet has given its approval for expanding the mandate of GeM to allow procurement by Cooperatives as buyers on GeM.

38

Macolin convention, recently seen in news, aims to:

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• “Macolin Convention” also known as the Council of Europe Convention on the Manipulation of Sports Competitions is a multilateral treaty that aims to prevent, detect, and punish match fixing in sport.
• It is a legal instrument and the only rule of international law on the manipulation of sports competitions.

• It requests public authorities to co-operate with sports organisations, betting operators and competition organisers to prevent, detect and sanction the manipulation of sports competitions.
• It proposes a common legal framework for an efficient international cooperation to respond to this global threat.

39

With reference to “First Movers Coalition”, consider the following statements:

1. It was launched at 26th United Nations Climate Change conference.

2. It aims to decarbonize the most carbon-intensive sectors such as the heavy industry and long distance transport sectors.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• India has recently joined the First Movers Coalition
• It is a global public-private partnership initiative aimed at decarbonising the heavy industry and long-distance transport sectors responsible for 30 percent of global emissions.
• The initiative was launched by President of the USA Joe Biden and the World Economic Forum (WEF) at COP26, UNFCCC.
• It brings together global companies with supply chains across carbon-intensive sectors.
• Founding members include Amazon, Apple, Bank of America, Mahindra Group etc.

40

With reference to Neobanks, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Neobanks are financial institutions that give customers a cheaper alternative to traditional banks
2. They have both physical branches and online services
3. These firms don’t have bank license of their own
4. Razorpay is an example of Neobank

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• Neobanks are financial institutions that give customers a cheaper alternative to traditional banks. They leverage technology and artificial intelligence to offer personalised services to customers while minimising operating costs. Neobanks entered the financial system with the tag of ‘challenger banks‘ because they challenged the complex infrastructure and client onboarding process of traditional banks.
• In India, these firms don‘t have a bank licence of their own but rely on bank partners to offer licensed services. That‘s because the RBI doesn‘t allow banks to be 100% digital yet. The RBI remains resolute in prioritising banks‘ physical presence and has spoken about the need for digital banking service providers to have some physical presence as well.
• RazorpayX, Jupiter, Niyo, Open, etc are the examples of top Neobanks of India.

41

Jan Samarth Portal is an initiative of which of the following Ministry/Institution?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• Jan Samarth Portal, an initiative of the Ministry of Finance, is a one-stop gateway for over a dozen of the government’s credit-linked schemes directly connecting beneficiaries to lenders. The portal will act as a single platform for loan application and processing under Credit-Linked Government Schemes.
• The portal will improve the lives of students, farmers, businessmen, Micro, Small and  Medium Enterprises entrepreneurs and will also help the start-up ecosystem. The idea behind launching this portal is to encourage inclusive growth and development of several sectors.

42

With reference to Sirumalai Hill Ranges, consider the following statements:

1. It is located in the state of Tamil Nadu

2. It is a part of Nilgiri Biosphere reserve

3. It is considered as the southernmost mountain range of Eastern Ghats

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• The Sirumalai Hills are spread over 60,000 acres in Dindigul District of Tamil Nadu. They are considered to be the spur of the Eastern Ghats. It is the last mountain range of the Eastern Ghats. They are located about 25 kilometres from Dindigul town, at an altitude of 400 to 1,650 metres from mean sea level.
• The hills act as a repository of several rare and endemic plants. The lower hill range consists of highly disturbed scrub forest while the major portion of the middle hill ranges are occupied by tropical mixed dry deciduous forest.
• The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve is a biosphere reserve in the Nilgiri mountains of the Western Ghats in South India.
• It includes the protected areas Mudumalai National Park, Mukurthi National Park, Sathyamangalam Wildlife Sanctuary in Tamil Nadu; Nagarhole National Park, Bandipur National Park, both in Karnataka; Silent Valley National Park, Aralam Wildlife Sanctuary, Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary, and Karimpuzha Wildlife Sanctuary in Kerala.

43

The “AIWASI” Water Security Agreement is an initiative between which of the following nations?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• Australia-India water Security initiative (AIWASI) is a project Under South Asia Water Security Initiative (SAWASI) of Department of Foreign Affairs and Trade (DFAT), Australia.
• It aims to work towards the Water Sensitive City vision which is based on holistic management of the integrated water cycle. AIWASI will strengthen India‘s water governance and undertake investments that provide urban water services, support to disadvantaged communities to access reliable, safe water and sanitation services.

• The project will undertake and deliver a Water Sensitive Urban Design (WSUD) demonstration project. This AIWASI project is also a ?living laboratory‘ with multiple educational, social, and environmental benefits like water literacy of students and the community, creation of green spaces, improved air quality from blue-green infrastructure and rejuvenation of degraded water bodies and aquifers.

44

Consider the following pairs of Military Exercises and the Countries who participated in it along with India:
Exercise - Country
1.Konkan - UK
2.INDRA - Nepal
3. Hand in Hand - USA
4.Varuna - France
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• Konkan naval exercise is conducted in the India-United Kingdom. This bilateral exercise provides a platform for the two Navies to periodically exercise at sea and in harbour, to build interoperability and share best practices.
• Exercise Indra is a bilateral exercise between the militaries of India and Russia. The exercise will entail conduct of counter terror operations under the United Nations mandate by a joint force against international terror groups. The INDRA series of exercises began in 2003. Hand in Hand exercise is India-China joint military exercise. The exercise takes place between the armies of both countries. The aim of Hand in Hand exercise is to enhance interoperability between the two armies to counter-terrorism.
• The annually held Varuna naval exercise is an integral part of France–India strategic relationship in the 21st century and consists of naval cooperation drills between the French Navy and the Indian Navy. The joint-exercises are held either in the Indian Ocean or Mediterranean Sea.

45

In which one of the following groups are all the four countries members of NATO?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) is a military alliance established by the North Atlantic Treaty (also called the Washington Treaty) of April 1949, by the United States, Canada, and several Western European nations to provide collective security against the Soviet Union.
• There are currently 30 member states. Its original members were Belgium, Canada, Denmark, France, Iceland, Italy, Luxembourg, the Netherlands, Norway, Portugal, the United Kingdom, and the United States. Joining the original signatories were Greece and Turkey (1952), West Germany (1955, from 1990 as Germany), Spain (1982), the Czech Republic, Hungary, and Poland (1999), Bulgaria, Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania, Romania, Slovakia, and Slovenia (2004), Albania and Croatia (2009), Montenegro (2017), and North Macedonia (2020).
• NATO currently recognizes Bosnia and Herzegovina, Finland, Georgia, Sweden, and Ukraine as aspiring members as part of their Open Doors enlargement policy.

46

In the context of Bharat Gaurav Scheme, consider the following statements:
1. The scheme is aimed to tap the huge potential of tourism in India
2. Theme-based circuit trains under this scheme will be run by IRCTC only
3. It envisions to showcase India’s rich cultural heritage and historical places to the world
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• Bharat Gaurav Scheme was launched by the Railway Ministry in November 2021, which allowed private entities to operate theme-based train services across different circuits. In Indian Railways there were two segments until now i.e., passenger segments and goods segments but through this scheme one more segment that is third segment for tourism is also added.
• It will help realize the vision of govt to showcase India‘s rich cultural heritage and magnificent historical places to the people of India and the world. They will also help in tapping the vast tourism potential of India.
• The scheme was announced under the theme-based tourist circuit trains. That means the trains under the scheme will cover the places related to a particular theme, such as Guru Kripa trains for covering important places of Sikh culture, Ramayana trains for places connected with Lord Shri Ram, etc.
• These trains will be run, by both private players and IRCTC, in theme-based circuits.

47

With reference to the Pangong Tso Lake, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The Line of Actual Control passes through this lake
2. It is a fresh water lake
3. It freezes completely during winters
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• Pangong Tso is an endorheic lake spanning eastern Ladakh and West Tibet
• Situated at a height of about 4,350 m, it is world's highest salt water lake.
• Nearly 60% of the length of the lake lies within the Tibetan Autonomous Region.
• The Line of Actual Control passes through this lake.
• It is one of the highest altitude lakes in the world that is filled with saline water.
• Even though it is a saline water lake, Pangong Tso freezes completely in winters.

48

“TiHAN” facility, which was recently established by the Government, is related to:

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
Ministry of Science & Technology has inaugurated ?Technology Innovation Hub on Autonomous Navigation? or TiHAN, in IIT- Hyderabad, which is a first “Autonomous Navigation” facility. It is seen as one of the steps toward India‘s vision of “Atmanibhar Bharat”, “Skill India” and “Digital India”.
• It is a multidisciplinary initiative, which aims at making India a global player in the futuristic and next generation ?Smart Mobility? technology. At present, there is no such testbed facility in India to evaluate the autonomous navigation of vehicles. Therefore, it is envisioned to address this gap by developing a fully functional and exemplary testbed facility dedicated to Connected Autonomous Vehicles (CAVs).

• India‘s mobility sector is one of the world‘s largest markets and the TiHAN - IITH will be the source of futuristic technology generation for autonomous vehicles. The TiHAN-IITH testbed on Autonomous Navigations (Aerial & Terrestrial) will allow us to test the next generation autonomous navigation technologies accurately and allow faster technology development and global market penetration.

49

Consider the following pairs:
Ramsar site - Location
1. Ansupa - Arunachal
2. Kabartal - Jharkhand
3. Ranganathittu - Telangana
4. Khijadia - Chhattisgarh
How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• A Ramsar site is a wetland of international importance under the Ramsar Convention, which is also known as the ?Convention on Wetlands‘ — an intergovernmental environmental treaty established by UNESCO in 1971, and named after the city of Ramsar in Iran, where the convention was signed that year.
• Ramsar recognition is the identification of wetlands around the world, which are of international importance, especially if they provide habitat to waterfowl (about 180 species of birds). There is international interest and cooperation in the conservation of such wetlands and a judicious use of their resources.
• The locations of various Ramsar sites are:
• Ansupa Lake - Odisha
• Kabartal - Bihar
• Ranganathittu Bird Sanctuary - Karnataka
Khijadia Wildlife Sanctuary – Gujarat

50

With reference to the Financial Action Task Force (FATF), which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Its core objective is to serve Central Banks in their pursuit of achieving monetary and financial stability
2. It was established in 1989 by G7 group of nations
3. Its Secretariat is located at the OECD Headquarters in Paris
4. India is a member of the FATF
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is an inter-governmental body that sets international standards seeking to prevent international financial crimes that aid terrorism. It is the global money laundering and terrorist financing watchdog.
• The FATF was established in July 1989 by a G-7 Summit in Paris, initially to examine and develop measures to combat money laundering.
• Its Secretariat is located at the Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) headquarters in Paris.
• The FATF currently comprises 37 member jurisdictions and two regional organizations (European Commission and Gulf Cooperation Council), representing most major financial centers in all parts of the globe. India has been a member of the FATF since 2010.

51

In the context of Agnipath Scheme, consider the following statements:


1. It allows youth to serve in the Armed Forces for a period of four years
2. It recruits personnel to the Officer ranks
3. It offers death and disability allowance to the cadets
4. This scheme will reduce the defence pension bill of the government


Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• The government has unveiled Agnipath scheme for recruiting soldiers across theThree services (Army, Navy and Airforce). It allows patriotic and motivated youth to , serve in thArmedForces for a period of four years. Under this scheme, the youth joining the army will be called Agniveer. Youth will be able to be recruited into the army for a short duration.
• Under the new scheme, around 45,000 to 50,000 soldiers will be recruited annually,and most will leave the service in just four years. However, after four years, only 25% of the batch will be recruited back into their respective services, for a period of 15years.
• Upon the completion of the 4-years of service, a one-time ‘Seva Nidhi‘ package of Rs 11.71 lakhs will be paid to the Agniveers that will include their accrued interest thereon. They will also get Rs 48 lakh life insurance cover for the four years. In case of death, the payout will be over Rs 1 crore, including pay for the unserved tenure.
• They do not receive any pension benefits. As per Army calculations, the savings for the government in this ‘Tour of Duty model‘ of recruitment from just one sepoy would be around Rs 11.5 crore.
• It is only for personnel below officer ranks (those who do not join the forces as commissioned officers). Commissioned officers are the army's highest ranked officers. Commissioned officers hold an exclusive rank in the Indian armed forces

52

Consider the following statements:
1. World Mental Health report is released by World Health Organization
2. All WHO members have adopted the Comprehensive Mental Health Action Plan 2013-30
3. Mental Healthcare Act 2017 guarantees every affected person access to mental healthcare and treatment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• According to the World Health Organization (WHO), mental health is a state of wellbeing in which the individual realizes his or her own abilities, can cope with the normal stresses of life, can work productively and fruitfully, and is able to make a contribution to his or her community.‘

• Recently the World Health Organization (WHO) released the World Mental Health Report. WHO has called for more action on addressing mental health issues worldwide, especially now that the ‘Covid-19‘ pandemic has been cited as contributing to worsening mental health. Almost a billion people, 14% of whom were adolescents, were living with some form of mental health issues in 2019.

53

Why a species is called “Truncatoflabellum” often mentioned in news?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• Scientists have recorded Four Species of zooxanthellae Corals under the Genus Truncatoflabellum (Scleractinian: Flabellidae) for the first time from Indian waters.
• They are found from the Waters of Andaman and Nicobar Islands. They are Azooxanthellate corals, which are a group of corals that do not contain zooxanthellae and derive nourishment not from the sun but from capturing different forms of plankton. They are hard corals and are not only solitary but have a highly compressed skeletal structure.
• They are deep-sea representatives, with the majority of species reporting from between 200 m to 1000 m. They also occur in shallow coastal waters.

54

With respect to the United Nations membership, consider the following statements:
1. Any application for membership to UN must receive the affirmative votes of 9 of the 15 members of the Security Council
2. A two-thirds majority vote is necessary in the General Assembly for admission of a new State
3. UN Credentials Committee determines the credentials of each member nation’s UN representatives
4. Indonesia was the first and only member to withdraw its membership from UN
Which of the following states is the first and only member to withdraw its membership from the United Nations?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:

• Membership in the Organization, in accordance with the Charter of the United Nations, is open to all peace-loving States that accept the obligations contained in the United Nations Charter and, in the judgment of the Organization, are able to carry out these obligations?.
• States are admitted to membership in the United Nations by a decision of the General Assembly upon the recommendation of the Security Council.
• The procedure is briefly as follows:
• The State submits an application to the Secretary-General and a letter formally stating that it accepts the obligations under the Charter.
• The Security Council considers the application. Any recommendation for admission must receive the affirmative votes of 9 of the 15 members of the Council, provided that none of its five permanent members have voted against the application.
• If the Council recommends admission, the recommendation is presented to the General Assembly for consideration. A two-thirds majority vote is necessary in the Assembly for admission of a new State.
• Membership becomes effective the date the resolution for admission is adopted.
• At each session, the General Assembly considers the credentials of all representatives of Member States participating in that session.
• Indonesia is the first and the only nation to withdraw its membership from the United Nations, in protest to the election of Malaysia as a non- permanent member of the Security Council in 1965 during conflict between the two countries. After forming CONEFO as a short-lived rival to the UN, Indonesia resumed its full membership in 1966.

55

In the context of Critical Information Infrastructure (CII) in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. IT Act 2000 defines CII as a computer resource whose incapacitation or destruction of which shall have debilitating impact on national security
2. Government can declare both public and private infrastructure as CII

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• The Information Technology Act of 2000 defines Critical Information Infrastructure as a computer resource, the incapacitation or destruction of which shall have debilitating impact on national security, economy, public health or safety.
• The government, under the IT Act of 2000, has the power to declare any data, database, IT network or communications infrastructure as CII to protect that digital asset. Recently, the Union Ministry of Electronics and IT (MeitY) has declared IT (Information Technology) resources of ICICI Bank, HDFC Bank and NPCI (National Payments Corporation of India) as ?critical information infrastructure‘.
• Any person who secures access or attempts to secure access to a protected system in violation of the law can be punished with a jail term of up to 10 years.

56

Consider the following statements regarding Nord Stream Pipeline:
1. It is a pipeline that carries both Oil and Gas from Russia to Europe
2. It is a subsea pipeline that runs under the Black Sea
3. It is the longest subsea pipeline in the world
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• Nord Stream Pipeline is an export gas pipeline that runs under the Baltic Sea carrying gas from Russia to Europe. The gas for Nord Steam comes mainly from the Bovanenkovo oil and gas condensate deposit in Western Siberia.
• The Nord Stream crosses the Exclusive Economic Zones (EEZs) of several countries including Russia, Finland, Sweden, Denmark and Germany, and the territorial waters of Russia, Denmark, and Germany.
• Owned by the Russian energy giant, Gazprom, Nord Stream Pipeline is the longest subsea pipeline. Nord Stream consists of two pipelines, which have two lines each:
• Nord Stream 1 that runs from Vyborg in Russia to Lubmin in Germany was completed in 2011.
• Nord Stream 2 that runs from Ust-Luga in Russia to Lubmin in Germany was completed in 2021.

• Both the pipelines together can transport a combined total of 110 billion cubic metres of gas a year to Europe for at least 50 years. While both pipelines are not currently running commercially, they had millions of cubic metres of gas stored in them.

57

The “Payment Vision 2025” , sometimes seen in the news, was released by:

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:

• Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has come out with “Payments Vision 2025” with an objective to provide every user with safe, secure, fast, convenient, accessible and affordable e-payment options. It has been prepared by considering the guidance from the Board for Regulation and Supervision of Payment and Settlement Systems of the RBI.
• The Payments Vision 2025 document is presented across the five anchor goalposts of Integrity, Inclusion, Innovation, Institutionalisation, and Internationalisation.
• Some of its objectives/goals are
• To elevate the payment systems towards a realm of empowering users with affordable payment options accessible anytime and anywhere with
convenience.
• Regulation of BigTechs and FinTechs in the payments space.
• Increase in debit card transactions at PoS (Point of Sale) by 20%.
• Debit card usage to surpass credit cards in terms of value

58

Government has recently launched the pilot phase of Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC). In this context, consider the following statements:
1. ONDC is a freely accessible government-backed platform
2. Under ONDC, a buyer registered on one e-commerce site can purchase goods from a seller on another e-commerce site
3. All existing digital commerce platforms should mandatorily be a part of ONDC network

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• Recently, the government has launched the pilot phase of Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) with an aim to ?democratise the country‘s fast growing digital ecommerce space that is currently dominated by the two U.S.-headquartered firms
— Amazon and Walmart.
• ONDC is a freely accessible government-backed platform that aims to democratise ecommerce by moving it from a platform-centric model to an open network for buying and selling of goods and services. Under ONDC, it is envisaged that a buyer registered on one participating e-commerce site (for example, Amazon) may purchase goods from a seller on another participating e-commerce site (for example, Flipkart).
• It is a not-for-profit organisation that will offer a network to enable local digital commerce stores across industries to be discovered and engaged by any network enabled applications.
• ONDC is neither an aggregator application nor a hosting platform, and all existing digital commerce applications and platforms can voluntarily choose to adopt and be a part of the ONDC network.
• The project to integrate e-commerce platforms through a network based on open source technology has been tasked to the Quality Council of India.

59

The Theri Desert, a desert made up of red sand dunes, is located in which of the following States/UT?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• Theri Desert is a small desert situated in the state of Tamil Nadu. It consists of red sand dunes and is confined to Thoothukudi district. The red dunes are called theri in Tamil. They consist of sediments dating back to the Quaternary Period (began 2.6 million years ago) and are made of marine deposits.
• They have very low water and nutrient retention capacity.
• The iron-rich heavy minerals like ilmenite, magnetite, garnet, hypersthene and rutile present in the soil had undergone leaching by surface water and were then oxidised because of the favourable semi-arid climatic conditions. It was due to these processes that the dunes near Tiruchendur, a coastal town of Thoothukudi district are redcoloured.

60

Consider the following statements regarding “Water Hyacinth”:

1. It is an indigenous species common in waterbodies across South Asia

2. It has been used as a biofertilizer in organic agricultural practices

3. It has the ability to trap and remove harmful heavy metals from water

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• Water hyacinth, scientifically known as Eichhornia crassipes Mart. (Pontederiaceae), is an aquatic weed common in water-bodies across South Asia, including India.
• This is not an indigenous species but was introduced to India during the British colonial rule as an ornamental aquatic plant from South America.
• This simple, floating aquatic plant, unfortunately, is also an obnoxious weed that has been suffocating surface freshwater sources like rivers, rivulets, streams, ponds, dams, lakes and bogs, making the waterbodies unsuitable for commercial fishery, transportation and recreation. The plant is a prolific vegetable matter-producer and has the ability to choke out any closed waterbody at an astonishing rate. Thus, water hyacinth has become a serious problem plant for the ecosystem.
• The plant produces beautiful purple flowers that have high aesthetic value. Water Hyacinth has been used as a bio-fertiliser in some organic agriculture practises.
• This plant is a good phytoremediation species, as it has the ability to trap and remove toxic metabolites and harmful heavy metals from water.

61

Consider the following statements:
1. All the members of AUKUS are members of „Partners in Blue Pacific? (PBP)
2. All the participants of Konkan Exercise are members of Quad grouping
3. All the participants of Malabar Exercise are members of “Partners in Blue Pacific” (PBP)
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• Recently, US and its allies - Australia, New Zealand, Japan and the United Kingdom - have launched a new initiative called ?Partners in the Blue Pacific‘ for ?effective and efficient cooperation  with the region‘s small island nations. is a fivenation informal mechanism? to support Pacific islands and to boost diplomatic, economic ties in the region. It speaks of enhancing  prosperity, resilience, and security  in the Pacific through closer cooperation. The initiative members will ?elevate Pacific regionalism  and forge stronger ties with the Pacific Islands Forum (PIF).
• AUKUS is a trilateral security pact between Australia, the United Kingdom, and the United States, announced on 15 September 2021 for the Indo-Pacific region. Under the pact, the US and the UK will help Australia to acquire nuclear-powered submarines, though not equipped with nuclear weapons. It also allows for greater sharing of intelligence.
• QUAD is the grouping of four democracies – India, Australia, the US, and Japan. All four nations find a common ground of being democratic nations and also support the common interest of unhindered maritime trade and security. It aims to ensure and support a free, open and prosperous Indo-Pacific region.
• Malabar Exercise started off in 1992 as a bilateral naval exercise between Indian and US navies. In 2015, Japan joined the exercise Malabar, making it a trilateral naval exercise. In 2020, the Australian Navy had joined the Malabar Exercise, making it a quadrilateral naval exercise

62

With reference to the Virtual Private Network (VPN), which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. VPNs encrypts internet traffic and hides the user’s IP address
2. VPNs make cyber data theft difficult for third parties
3. The usage of VPN is legally prohibited in India
4. It increases the internet speed for the use
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:

• VPN stands for "Virtual Private Network" and describes the opportunity to establish a protected network connection when using public networks. VPNs encrypt internet traffic and disguise the user‘s online identity. This makes it more difficult for third parties to track activities online and steal data. The encryption takes place in real time.
• A VPN hides the user‘s IP address by letting the network redirect it through a specially configured remote server run by a VPN host.
• Unencrypted data can be viewed by anyone who has network access. With a VPN, the government, hackers, and cyber criminals can‘t decipher this data. While they protect one‘s IP and encrypt one‘s internet history, a VPN connection does not protect one‘s computer from outside intrusion.
• Recently, The Union Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology issued new norms for VPN companies to record personal information of their users including names, email id, phone number and IP address for a period of five years. They also have to record usage patterns, purpose of hiring services and various other information.

63

Consider the following:
1. National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT)
2. Express Cheque Clearing System (ECCS)
3. Real Time Gross Settlement (RTGS)
Which of the systems given above is/are considered as Centralized Payment Systems?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• Centralized Payment Systems in India are Real Time Gross Settlement (RTGS) and National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) systems, both owned and operated by the Reserve Bank.
• RTGS: It enables real-time transfer of funds to a beneficiary‘s account and is primarily meant for large-value transactions. Real time means the processing of instructions at the time they are received, and gross settlement implies that settlement of funds transfer instructions occurs individually.
• NEFT: It is an electronic fund transfer system in which the transactions received up to a particular time are processed in batches. It is generally used for fund transfers of up to Rs. 2 lakh.
• The decentralised payment systems will include clearing houses managed by RBI (Cheque Truncation System (CTS) centres as well as other banks (Express Cheque Clearing System (ECCS) centres and any other system as decided by RBI from time to time.
• Cheque Truncation: It is the process of stopping the flow of the physical cheque issued by a drawer at some point by the presenting bank en-route to the paying bank branch.
• Express Cheque Clearing System: Funds move from one account to another to settle a check payment. The amount is usually credited to the bank account of deposit and an equivalent amount debited at the bank from which it is drawn.

64

In the context of “Guidelines for Prevention of Misleading Advertisements”, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The guidelines were issued by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry
2. It prohibits surrogate advertisements for goods whose direct advertising is otherwise restricted by law
3. Cigarette and Other Tobacco Products Act 2003 bans all kinds of direct and indirect advertisements of tobacco products
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• The Guidelines for Prevention of Misleading Advertisements and Endorsements for Misleading Advertisements, 2022, have been released to protect the consumers and to ensure that consumers are not being fooled with unsubstantiated claims, exaggerated promises, misinformation and false claims?.
• It was released by the Central Consumer Protection Authority which works under the administrative control of Ministry of Consumer Affairs. Statements 2 and 3 >> Correct
The guidelines clearly state that no surrogate advertisement or indirect advertisement shall be made for goods or services whose advertising is otherwise prohibited or restricted by law, by circumventing such prohibition or restriction and portraying it to be an advertisement for other goods or services, the advertising of which is not prohibited or restricted by law.
• In India, tobacco products and alcohol cannot be advertised openly under laws like the Cigarette and Other Tobacco Products Act, 2003, which bans all kinds of direct and indirect advertisements of tobacco products.

65

The Pasmanda Community, sometimes seen in the news, are a :

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• ‘Pasmanda’, a Persian term meaning ?those who have fallen behind? refers to Muslims belonging to the shudra (backward) and ati-shudra (Dalit) castes. It was adopted as an oppositional identity to that of the dominant ashraf Muslims (forward castes) in 1998 by the Pasmanda Muslim Mahaz, a group which mainly worked in Bihar.
• Pasmandas encompass those who are socially, educationally and economically backward and make up the majority of the Muslim community in the country.
• The term ?Pasmanda? is majorly used by Muslim associations in Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, and other parts of India to define themselves as Muslim communities historically and socially oppressed by caste. Backward, Dalit and tribal Muslim communities are now organised under the identity of Pasmanda.

66

With reference to the Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI), which of the following statement is not correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI) a global partnership of national governments, United Nations agencies and programmes, multilateral development banks and financing mechanisms, the private sector, and academic and research institutions.
• It aims to increase the resilience of infrastructure systems to climate and disaster risks, thereby ensuring sustainable development. It was launched in 2019, at the United Nations Climate Action Summit in New York.

• Its Secretariat is in New Delhi. Since its inception, 31 countries, 6 international organisations and 2 private sector organisations have joined CDRI as members. The CDRI is a partnership between national governments and other agencies and not based on rights and obligations. It is a platform for knowledge generation and exchange and will also develop country specific as well as global plans. Its decisions, policies and standards of the coalition are not binding on the members.

67

Consider the following statements regarding Metaverse:
1. Metaverse is a simulated digital environment which is an extension of our real world into the digital realm
2. It uses technologies like Augmented Reality, Virtual Reality and Blockchain
3. Non-fungible tokens (NFTs) can be bought or sold in the Metaverse.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• The metaverse is an extension of our real world into the digital realm providing an immersive multi-user experience for anyone accessing it around the globe.
• Accessing this virtual world requires the Internet and digital devices.
• It is a combination of multiple elements of technology, including virtual reality, augmented reality, blockchain and video where users ?live? within a digital universe. The technology behind this is called Augmented Reality (AR) and Virtual Reality (VR).
• It can be imagined as a 3D virtual world, with ever-evolving aspects which are collectively shared by its inhabitants - a virtual world with real-time events and an online infrastructure.
• In theory, it encapsulates everything that‘s happening into the real world and will bring real-time events and updates going forward. The user exists in a virtual world without borders.
• NFTs are a secure type of digital asset based on the same blockchain technology used by cryptocurrency.
• Instead of currency, an NFT can represent a piece of art, a song or digital real estate.
• An NFT gives the owner a kind of digital deed or proof of ownership that can be bought or sold in the metaverse

68

Which one of following statements best describes the term “Oncolytic Virotherapy”??

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Oncolytic viruses can kill cancer cells while leaving nearby healthy cells and tissues intact. In oncolytic virotherapy, the treatment also exerts its influence by activating an antitumor immune response made of immune cells such as Natural Killer (NK) cells.

69

With reference to Financial Services Institutions Bureau (FSIB), which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It will select the Chiefs of public sector banks and insurance companies
2. The Chairperson of FSIB is to be nominated by the Central Government
3. It will function under the Bank Board Bureau of India
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation
? The metaverse is an extension of our real world into the digital realm providing an immersive multi-user experience for anyone accessing it around the globe.
? Accessing this virtual world requires the Internet and digital devices.
? It is a combination of multiple elements of technology, including virtual reality, augmented reality, blockchain and video where users ?live? within a digital universe. The technology behind this is called Augmented Reality (AR) and Virtual Reality (VR).
? It can be imagined as a 3D virtual world, with ever-evolving aspects which are collectively shared by its inhabitants - a virtual world with real-time events and an online infrastructure.
? In theory, it encapsulates everything that‘s happening into the real world and will bring real-time events and updates going forward. The user exists in a virtual world without borders.

? Non-fungible tokens (NFTs) figure to play a big role in the usefulness and popularity of the metaverse.
? NFTs are a secure type of digital asset based on the same block chain technology used by cryptocurrency.
? Instead of currency, an NFT can represent a piece of art, a song or digital real estate.
? An NFT gives the owner a kind of digital deed or proof of ownership that can be bought or sold in the metaverse.

70

With reference to the National Investigation Agency (NIA), consider the following
statements:
1. NIA is the Central Counter Terrorism Law Enforcement
Agency of India
2. It was constituted under the Unlawful Activities Prevention (Amendment) Act 2008
3. Its jurisdiction extends only within the territory of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:

• National Investigation Agency (NIA) is the Central Counter-Terrorism Law Enforcement Agency of India mandated to investigate all the offences affecting the sovereignty, security and integrity of India. It includes:
• Friendly relations with foreign states.
• Against atomic and nuclear facilities.
• Smuggling of arms, drugs and fake Indian currency and infiltration from across the borders.
• The offences under the statutory laws enacted to implement international treaties, agreements, conventions and resolutions of the United Nations, its agencies, and other international organisations
• NIA was constituted in the wake of the 26/11 Mumbai terror attack in November 2008.
• It was constituted under the National Investigation Agency (NIA) Act, 2008.
• The agency is empowered to deal with the investigation of terror related crimes across states without special permission from the states under written proclamation from the Ministry of Home Affairs.

71

Consider the following statements regarding UN Human Rights Council (HRC):

1. It is the UN body responsible for protection of human rights around the world

2. Its members are elected by the UN Security Council

3. The Council?s membership is based on equitable geographical distribution

4. Members have a security of tenure due to which they cannot be suspended during its tenure of 3 years

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• Human Rights Council is an inter-governmental body within the United Nations system responsible for strengthening the promotion and protection of human rights around the world.
• The Council was created by the United Nations General Assembly in 2006. It replaced the former United Nations Commission on Human Rights. The Office of the
High Commissioner for Human Rights (OHCHR) serves as the Secretariat of the Human Rights Council.
• It is made up of 47 United Nations Member States which are elected by the UN General Assembly (UNGA).
• The UNGA takes into account the candidate States' contribution to the promotion and protection of human rights, as well as their voluntary pledges and commitments in this regard. The Council's Membership is based on equitable geographical distribution. Members of the Council serve for a period of three years and are not eligible for immediate re-election after serving two consecutive terms.

72

Consider the following statements:
1. African Union is a continental body consisting of all countries of African Continent
2. African Continental Free Trade Agreement (AfCTA) has been signed by all the members of African Union
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• African Union (AU) is a continental body consisting of the 55 member states that make up the countries of the African Continent. The AU was announced in the Sirte Declaration in Sirte, Libya, on 9 September 1999, calling for the establishment of the African Union. All UN member states based in Africa and on African islands are members of the AU.
• Within the African Union, there are official bodies, such as the Peace and Security Council and the Pan-African Parliament.
• African Continental Free Trade Area (AfCFTA) is a free trade area encompassing most of Africa. It was established in 2018 by the African Continental Free Trade Agreement, which has 43 parties and another 11 signatories, making it the largest free-trade area by number of member states, after the World Trade Organization, and the largest in population and geographic size, spanning 1.3 billion people across the world's second largest continent. The agreement founding AfCFTA was brokered by the African Union (AU).
• As of December 2022, there are 54 signatories. The only country still not to sign the agreement is Eritrea, which has a largely closed economy.

73

The Global Findex Report is published by which of the following organization?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
The World Bank has released 'The Global Findex Report 2021'. The Global Findex surveys over 125,000 adults in 123 economies during Covid-19 to better understand how people use formal and informal financial services and digital payment.

74

Consider the following statements with reference to Information Technology Act 2000:
1. It confers the power on government to intercept or monitor any information in any computer resource
2. Both Central and State governments have the power to issue directions under it
3. Government can block public access to any digital information or Social Media websites under it
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• Section 69 (A) of the Information Technology Act confers on the Central and State governments the power to issue directions ?to intercept, monitor or decrypt any information generated, transmitted, received or stored in any computer resource?.
• The grounds on which these powers may be exercised are:
• In the interest of the sovereignty or integrity of India, defence of India, the security of the state.
• Friendly relations with foreign states.
• Public order, or for preventing incitement to the commission of any cognizable offence relating to these.
• For investigating any offence.
• Section 69A enables the Centre to ask any agency of the government, or any intermediary, to block access to the public of any information generated, transmitted, received or stored or hosted on any computer resource. The term ‘intermediaries‘ includes providers of telecom service, network service, Internet service and web hosting, besides search engines, online payment and auction sites, online marketplaces, and cyber cafes.
• Any such request for blocking access must be based on reasons given in writing

75

Consider the following pairs:
     GI Product      -   State
1. Khola Chilli       - Manipur
2. Rasagola          - Odisha
3. Dindigul Locks - Tamil Nadu


Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
? Khola Chilli from Goa
? Rasagolla from Odisha
? Dindigul Lock from Tamil Nadu. About GI tag
? GI is an indication used to identify goods having special characteristics originating from a definite geographical territory.
? The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 seeks to provide for the registration and better protection of geographical indications relating to goods in India.
? The Act is administered by the Controller General of Patents, Designs and Trademarks who is the Registrar of Geographical Indications. The Geographical Indications Registry is located at Chennai.
? The registration of a geographical indication is valid for a period of 10 years.
? It can be renewed from time to time for a further period of 10 years each. It is also a part of the World Trade Organisation‘s Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS).

76

The Direct Seeded Rice (DSR) technique is well known as the:

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• Direct Seeded Rice (DSR), also known as the ?broadcasting seed technique,‘ is a water-saving method of sowing paddy. In this method, seeds are directly drilled into the fields. In contrast to the traditional water-intensive method of transplanting rice seedlings from a nursery to waterlogged fields, this method saves groundwater.
• There is no nursery preparation or transplantation involved in this method. Farmers have to only level their land and give one pre-sowing irrigation. The main advantages of this technique are that it require less number of labours, increase in yield and water conservation.

77

“LUX-ZEPLIN” experiment recently seen in the news is associated with which of the
following?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• Recently, a highly sensitive experiment named LUX-ZEPLIN (LZ) has been used to detect dark matter in the universe in the U.S. The experiment uses an ultra-sensitive detector made of 10 tons of liquid xenon to hunt for signals of WIMP-nucleus (weakly interacting massive particles) interactions. It is one of three such experiments which lead the search for direct detection of WIMPs above 10 GeV/c², the other two being the XENONnT experiment and the PANDAX-4T experiment.
• Dark matter is made up of particles that do not have a charge. So, these particles are dark, namely because they do not emit light, which is an electromagnetic phenomenon, and matter because they possess mass like normal matter and interact through gravity. Only 5% of the entire visible universe is made up of all matter and the rest of 95% is dark matter and dark energy.

78

With reference to the types of Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) mechanisms, consider the following statements:
1. Under Arbitration, the dispute is submitted to an arbitral tribunal
2. Under Mediation, the mediator does not decide the dispute but leaves the control of the outcome with the disputing parties
3. Conciliation is a non-binding procedure in which discussions between the parties are initiated without the intervention of any third party
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:

• ADR is a mechanism of dispute resolution that is non-adversarial, i.e., working together co-operatively to reach the best resolution for everyone.
• ADR can be instrumental in reducing the burden of litigation on courts, while delivering a well-rounded and satisfying experience for the parties involved.

• Types of ADR Mechanisms: ADR is generally classified into the following types:
• Arbitration: The dispute is submitted to an arbitral tribunal which makes a decision (an "award") on the dispute that is mostly binding on the parties. It is less formal than a trial, and the rules of evidence are often relaxed. Generally, there is no right to appeal an arbitrator's decision. Except for some interim measures, there is very little scope for judicial intervention in the arbitration process.
• Conciliation: A non-binding procedure in which an impartial third party, the conciliator, assists the parties to a dispute in reaching a mutually satisfactory agreed settlement of the dispute. Conciliation is a less formal form of arbitration. The parties are free to accept or reject the recommendations of the conciliator. However, if both parties accept the settlement document drawn by the conciliator, it shall be final and binding on both.
• Mediation: In mediation, an impartial person called a "mediator" helps the parties try to reach a mutually acceptable resolution of the dispute. The mediator does not decide the dispute but helps the parties communicate so they can try to settle the dispute themselves. Mediation leaves control of the outcome with the parties.
• Negotiation: A non-binding procedure in which discussions between the parties are initiated without the intervention of any third party with the object of arriving at a negotiated settlement to the dispute. It is the most common method of alternative dispute resolution. Negotiation occurs in business, nonprofit organizations, government branches, legal proceedings, among nations and in personal situations such as marriage, divorce, parenting, and everyday life.

79

With reference to the Sodium-ion batteries (SIB), which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. They are rechargeable batteries which require sodium ion movement between electrodes during its working
2. SIBs are costlier to produce than Lithium-ion battery
3. They are energy dense and operate well in colder temperature
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• Sodium Ion Batteries (SIBs) are rechargeable batteries which require sodium ion movement between electrodes during the charging and discharging of the battery, the cathode for these batteries is manufactured from sodium.
• It‘s cheaper to produce than their lithium counterparts because of the abundance of the raw materials required to make them. They are energy dense, non-flammable, and operate well in colder temperatures.
• Furthermore, they can store more energy per unit weight, this could make them well suited for larger applications such as electric vehicles. They are less likely to experience thermal runaway, a condition that can cause fires in lithium-ion batteries.

80

Surety Bonds, which is a newly introduced financial instrument, are managed and
regulated by which of the following?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• A surety bond can be defined in its simplest form as a written agreement to guarantee compliance, payment, or performance of an act.
• Surety is a unique type of insurance because it involves a three-party agreement. The three parties in a surety agreement are a principal who needs to sell the bond, an obligee who requires the bond, and a surety company that sells the bond. The obligee, usually a government entity, requires the principal, typically a business owner or contractor, to obtain a surety bond as a guarantee against future work performance. A surety bond is provided by the insurance company on behalf of the contractor to the entity which is awarding the project.
• Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) (Surety Insurance Contracts) Guidelines, 2022 came into force in April 2022. As per Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI), Insurers can issue contract bonds, which provide assurance to the public entity, developers, subcontractors and suppliers that the contractor will fulfil its contractual obligation when undertaking the project.

81

Both India and Myanmar are members of which of the following associations or projects?
1. BIMSTEC
2. Indian Ocean Rim Association
3. SAARC
4. IMT Trilateral Highway Project
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• BIMSTEC (Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation) is a regional multilateral organization. Its members lie in the littoral and adjacent areas of the Bay of Bengal constituting a contiguous regional unity. Its 7 members are Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Sri Lanka, Myanmar, Thailand
• SAARC's members are Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, Sri Lanka and Afghanistan.
• Indian Ocean Rim Association is a regional forum that seeks to build and expand understanding and mutually beneficial cooperation through a consensus-based,
evolutionary, and non-intrusive approach. IORA has 22 member states, including Australia, Bangladesh, Comoros, India, Indonesia, Iran, Kenya, Madagascar, Malaysia, Maldives, Mauritius, Mozambique, Oman, Seychelles, Singapore, Somalia, South Africa, Sri Lanka, Tanzania, Thailand, UAE, and Yemen.
• India–Myanmar–Thailand Trilateral Highway (IMT Highway), 1,360 km (850 mi) long route, is a highway under upgrade under India's Look East policy that will connect Moreh, India with Mae Sot, Thailand via Myanmar. The road is expected to boost trade and commerce in the ASEAN–India Free Trade Area, as well as with the rest of Southeast Asia.

82

With reference to “Strengthening Pharmaceuticals Industry” (SPI) Scheme, consider the following statements:
1. SPI scheme was launched by the Ministry of Chemical and Fertilizers
2. It aims to upgrade technology in the pharmaceutical sector
3. It provides for credit linked capital and interest subsidy to enterprises
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• Ministry of Chemicals & Fertilisers has launched Schemes for 'Strengthening Pharmaceuticals Industry' (SPI) keeping in view the strategic role of MSMEs (Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises).
• The Scheme provides for credit linked capital and interest subsidy for Technology Upgradation of MSME units in pharmaceutical sector, as well as support of up to Rs 20 crore each for common facilities including Research centre, testing labs and ETPs (Effluent Treatment Plant) in Pharma Clusters.
• The MSME unit will have the option to choose from either Capital subsidy or Interest subvention. SIDBI (Small Industries Development Bank of India) is the Project management Consultant for implementing the scheme.
• Its component are:
• Pharmaceutical Technology Upgradation Assistance Scheme (PTUAS) - It will facilitate pharmaceutical MSMEs with proven track records to upgrade their technology.
• Assistance to Pharma Industries for Common Facilities Scheme (API-CF)
• Pharmaceutical and Medical Devices Promotion and Development Scheme (PMPDS)
• The Scheme is aimed at enhancing India‘s capabilities in the pharmaceuticals sector with an objective to make it much more competitive in terms of both quality and cost and also aimed at making Indian pharma MSMEs, a part of Global supply chain.

83

With reference to Cryptocurrency, consider the following statements:
1. Cryptocurrency is any form of currency that exist virtually or digitally and uses cryptography to secure transactions
2. e-RUPI is a cryptocurrency launched by India
3. No European country has adopted Bitcoin as a legal tender yet
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• Cryptocurrency, sometimes called crypto-currency or crypto, is any form of currency that exists digitally or virtually and uses cryptography to secure transactions. Cryptocurrencies don't have a central issuing or regulating authority, instead use a decentralized system to record transactions and issue new units. It is supported by a decentralized peer-to-peer network called the block chain.
• Cryptocurrency is a specific type of virtual currency, which is decentralised and protected by cryptographic encryption techniques. Bitcoin, Ethereum, Ripple are a few notable examples of cryptocurrencies.
• Recently, the Central African Republic (CAR) became the second country after El Salvador to adopt Bitcoin as legal tender. No other countries has yet adopted Bitcoin as a legal tender (The two countries that regularised Bitcoin as a legal tender do not have a currency of their own.
• e-RUPI is a cashless and contactless method for digital payment. It is a Quick Response (QR) code or SMS string-based e-voucher, which is delivered to the mobile of the users.

84

Consider the following statements regarding Landlord Model?:
1. It is a Public-Private Partnership investment model
2. In this model the ownership of the newly built facility will rest with the private party
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• Landlord Port model is PPP model in which the publicly governed port authority acts as a regulatory body and as a landlord, while private companies carry out port operations-mainly cargo-handling activities.
• Here, the port authority maintains ownership of the port while the infrastructure is leased to private firms that provide and maintain their own superstructure and install their own equipment to handle cargo. In return, the landlord port gets a share of the revenue from the private entity.

• Recently, Jawaharlal Nehru Port became the first major port of the country to become a 100% Landlord port of India having all berths being operated on PPP model.

85

Consider the following pairs:
Historical Site in news : Located in
1. Martand Sun Temple : Kashmir
2. Anang Tal Lake : Delhi
3. Murgi Tokpo : Arunachal
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
Martand Sun Temple >>Kashmir
• It is also known as Pandou Laidan. It is a Hindu temple dedicated to Surya and built during the 8th century CE.
• Martand is another Sanskrit synonym for Surya. It was built by the third ruler of the Karkota Dynasty, Lalitaditya Muktapida. It is now in ruins, as it was destroyed by the orders of Muslim ruler Sikandar Shah Miri. The temple is located five miles from Anantnag in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir. Anang Tal lake >> Delhi
• The Anang Tal lake is situated in Mehrauli, Delhi and is claimed to be created by Tomar King, Anangpal II, in 1,060 AD.
• He is known to have established and populated Delhi in the 11th century. The millennium old Anang Tal signifies the beginning of Delhi. Murgi Tokpo >> Ladakh
• The rock art site of Murgi Tokpo is the largest petroglyph site (a rock art site) found to date, in Ladakh.

86

Which of the following statements about Optical Fibre cables is not correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• Optical fibre is the backbone of the digital infrastructure — the data is transmitted by light pulses travelling through long strands of thin fibre.
• Metal wires are preferred for transmission in optical fibre communication as signals travel with fewer damages. The optical fibre works on the principle of total internal reflection (TIR).
• Fiber provides more bandwidth and has standardized performance up to 10 Gbps and beyond, something that it is impossible to achieve when using copper. More bandwidth means that fiber can carry more information with far greater efficiency than copper wire.
• Since data travels in the form of light in fiber-optic cables, very little signal loss occurs during transmission and data can move at higher speeds and greater distances. Fiberoptic cable is also much less susceptible to noise and electromagnetic interference than copper wire. It is so efficient, in fact, that roughly 99.7% of the signal reaches the router in most cases.

87

Consider the following statements regarding PM SVANidhi Scheme:
1. It is a micro-credit facility to provide affordable collateral-free loans to street vendors
2. It covers beneficiaries from both urban and rural areas
3. Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) is the implementation agency for the scheme
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) has launched Pradhan Mantri Street Vendor's Atma Nirbhar Nidhi (PM SVANidhi), for providing affordable loans to street vendors.
• The Scheme was announced as a part of the Economic Stimulus-II under the Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan. The vendors can avail a working capital loan of up to Rs. 10,000, which is repayable in monthly instalments within a year. The loans would be without collateral. The scheme incentivises digital transactions by the street vendors through monthly cash back. The scheme is applicable to vendors, hawkers, thelewalas, rehriwalas, the liphadwalas in different areas/contexts who supply goods and services. Street vendors belonging to the surrounding peri-urban/rural areas are also included.
• The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs signed MoU with Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) in order to engage SIDBI as the Implementation Agency for the scheme. SIDBI will manage the credit guarantee to the lending institutions through Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises (CGTMSE).

88

The Horn of Africa denotes the region containing which of the following countries:
1. Rwanda
2. Djibouti
3. Eritrea
4. Somalia
5. Tanzania
Select the correct answer using the codes below:

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• Horn of Africa denotes the region containing the countries of Djibouti, Eritrea, Ethiopia, and Somalia. It is a peninsula in Northeast Africa. Located on the easternmost part of the African mainland, it is the fourth largest peninsula in the world.
• It lies along the southern boundary of the Red Sea and extends hundreds of kilometres into the Guardafui Channel, Gulf of Aden, and Indian Ocean.
• The Horn of Africa is equidistant from the equator and the Tropic of Cancer. The Horn contains such diverse areas as the highlands of the Ethiopian Plateau, the Ogaden desert, and the Eritrean and Somalian coasts.

89

Which of the following statements best describes a "Bullion Exchange??

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• A bullion market is a market through which buyers and sellers trade gold and silver as well as associated derivatives.
• There are various bullion markets around the world with the London Bullion Market known as the primary global market trading platform for gold and silver. Multiple bullion markets exist across the globe and are typically characterized as over- thecounter (OTC) markets.
• Indian Prime Minister launched India's first International Bullion Exchange - International Bullion Exchange (IIBX) - in the GIFT city (Gujarat International Finance Tec-City) in July 2022. IIBX will facilitate efficient price discovery with the assurance of responsible sourcing and quality, apart from giving impetus to the financialisation of gold in India.

90

The Ministry of Earth Sciences recently launched the “Swachh Sagar Surakshit Sagar” initiative. It is:

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
Recently, the Ministry of Earth Sciences has launched a Coastal Clean Up Drive under Swachh Sagar Surakshit Sagar Campaign to clean 75 beaches across the country in 75 days. It is the first-of-its-kind and longest running coastal clean-up campaign in the world with the highest number of people participating in it.
• The Campaign will culminate on ?International Coastal Clean-up Day? (17th September 2022). The day aims to increase public awareness about the accumulation and negative impacts of litter in oceans, on coastlines and on beaches.
• Through this campaign, a mass behavioural change among the masses is intended by raising awareness about how plastic usage is destroying the marine life. A mobile app Eco Mitram, has been launched to spread awareness about the campaign and also for the common people for voluntary registration for the beach cleaning activity.

91

Consider the following statements regarding National Family Health Survey (NFHS):
1. International Institute for Population Sciences (IIPS) is the nodal agency for conducting the survey
2. India achieved Replacement level fertility as per the NFHS-5 report
3. Currently there are no states in India whose Total Fertility Rate (TFR) is above replacement level of fertility
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• National Family Health Survey is a large-scale, multi-round survey conducted in a representative sample of households throughout India. The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) has designated the International Institute for Population Sciences (IIPS) Mumbai, as the nodal agency for providing coordination and technical guidance for the survey.
• India‘s total fertility rate (TFR) has declined from 2.2 in 2015-16 to 2.0 in 2019-21, indicating the significant progress of population control measures, revealed the report of the fifth round of the National Family Health Survey (NFHS-5).
• Total Fertility Rate of about 2.1 children per woman is called Replacement-level fertility.
• TFR lower than 2.1 children per woman - indicates that a generation is not producing enough children to replace itself, eventually leading to an outright reduction in population.
• There are only five states in India which are above replacement level of fertility of 2.1. These states are Bihar, Meghalaya, Uttar Pradesh, Jharkhand and Manipur.

92

“The crop requires hot and humid climate with 15-28 deg Celsius temperature and 150-250 cms of rainfall for its growth. It does not tolerate frost, snowfall and strong sunshine. It has fairly specific shade requirements”.

Which one of the following is this crop?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:

• Coffee is a genus of flowering plants in the family Rubiaceae.
• Coffee species are shrubs or small trees native to tropical and southern Africa and tropical Asia.
• Coffee plants require hot and humid climate with temperature varying between 15°C and 28 °C and rainfall from 150 to 250 cm. It does not tolerate frost, snowfall, high temperatures above 30°C and strong sunshine and is generally grown under shady trees.
• Coffee is largely produced in the southern part of India. Karnataka is the largest producer accounting for about 70% of the total coffee production in India. Other producers are Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, and Odisha. India produces two types of coffee: Arabica and Robusta. Arabica has higher market value than Robusta coffee due to its mild aromatic flavour.
• Coffee has traditionally been cultivated in the shade of other trees, which mimics the natural growing conditions of the plants in a forest understory.

93

Which of the following countries are the members of the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC)?
1. Iran
2. Russia
3. Afghanistan
4. India
5. Ukraine
6. Pakistan
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC) is a multi-modal transportation established on 12th September 2000 in St. Petersburg, by Iran, Russia, and India for the purpose of promoting transportation cooperation among the Member States.
• The INSTC was expanded to include eleven new members, namely: the Republic of Azerbaijan, Republic of Armenia, Republic of Kazakhstan, Kyrgyz Republic, Republic of Tajikistan, Republic of Turkey, Republic of Ukraine, Republic of Belarus, Oman, Syria, Bulgaria (Observer).
• It envisions a 7,200-km-long multi-mode network of ship, rail and road route for transporting freight, aimed at reducing the carriage cost between India and Russia by about 30% and bringing down the transit time from 40 days by more than half.
• This corridor connects India Ocean and the Persian Gulf to the Caspian Sea via the Islamic Republic of Iran and then is connected to St. Petersburg and North Europe via the Russian Federation.

94

Match the following pairs:
Air Defense System - Country
1. THAAD         A. USA
2. S-400           B. Israel
3. Iron Dome  C. Russia
Select the correct pairs from the codes given below:

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
THAAD
• THAAD is an acronym for Terminal High Altitude Area Defense, a transportable, ground-based anti-ballistic missile defence system.
• It is designed to intercept and destroy short and medium-range ballistic missiles in their final flight phase.
• THAAD is coupled with space-based and ground-based surveillance stations, which transfer data about the incoming missile and inform the THAAD interceptor missile of the threat type classification. S-400 Triumf Missile System
• It is a mobile, surface-to-air missile system (SAM) designed by Russia. It is the most dangerous operationally deployed modern long-range SAM (MLR SAM) in the world, considered much ahead of the US-developed Terminal High Altitude Area Defense system (THAAD).
• The system can engage all types of aerial targets including aircraft, unmanned aerial vehicles (UAV) and ballistic and cruise missiles within the range of 400km, at an altitude of up to 30km. The system can track 100 airborne targets and engage six of them simultaneously. Iron Dome
• It is a short-range, ground-to-air, air defence system of Israel that includes a radar and Tamir interceptor missiles that track and neutralise any rockets or missiles aimed at Israeli targets.
• It is used for countering rockets, artillery & mortars as well as aircraft, helicopters, and Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAV).

95

Prime Minister recently inaugurated the Sant Tukaram Shila Mandir in the temple town of Dehu in the Pune. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Sant Tukaram?
1. He was a Shaivite saint and poet
2. He was a contemporary of Shivaji
3. He advocated for a casteless society and denial or rituals
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• Sant Tukaram was a Warkari saint and poet. The sect is spread across Maharashtra and Sant Tukaram and his works are central to it.
• Varkaris worship Vithoba (also known as Vitthal), the presiding deity of Pandharpur. Vithoba is a form of Krishna, an avatar (incarnation) of Vishnu. Because of this association with Vishnu, Varkari is a branch of Vaishnavism.
• He was famously known for Abhanga devotional poetry and community-oriented worship through spiritual songs known as Kirtans. Also, composed a Marathi genre of literature called Abhanga poetry which fused folk stories with spiritual themes.
• Tukaram‘s teachings were regarded as Vedanta-based. His message about a casteless society and his denial of rituals had led to a social movement. His Abhangs became the strong weapon against the Brahmanical dominance of society.

96

Consider the following pairs:
Region in News           Country
1.Khost                   - Afghanistan
2.Artsakh               - Azerbaijan
3.Formosa.             - Taiwan
4.Snake Island       - Ukraine
How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• Khost is the capital of Khost Province in Afghanistan. Deadliest Afghanistan quake in decades kills over 1,000 people. The quake originated near the city of Khost, which is close to the country‘s border with Pakistan and about 160 kilometres (100 miles) south of the Afghan capital, Kabul. Artsakh, officially the Republic of Artsakh or the Nagorno-Karabakh Republic is a breakaway state in the South Caucasus whose territory is internationally recognised as part of Azerbaijan. The predominantly Armenian-populated region of NagornoKarabakh is claimed by both the Azerbaijan Democratic Republic and the First Republic of Armenia.
• Snake Island, also known as Serpent Island or Zmiinyi Island is an island belonging to Ukraine located in the Black Sea, near the Danube Delta, with an important role in delimiting Ukrainian territorial waters. Ukraine has caused significant losses to the Russian military in airstrikes on Zmiinyi Island.
• Taiwan officially the Republic of China (ROC) is a country in East Asia, at the junction of the East and South China Seas. The main island of Taiwan is also known as Formosa. The China-Taiwan issue has escalated to war like situation after the visit of US House Speaker Nancy Pelosi in August 2022. The differences over Taiwan‘s status have fueled rising tensions between the island and the mainland.

97

Indian companies have recently started importing Petcoke from Venezuela. In this context, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Petcoke is a carbon-rich solid material obtained as a byproduct from oil refining process
2. It is less polluting than Coal
3. It is abundantly used in India in cement and steel industries
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• Petroleum Coke is a substance obtained as a product from the oil refining process. It is a carbon-rich solid material derived from final cracking process which is a thermo- based chemical engineering process that splits long chain hydrocarbons of petroleum into shorter chains that takes place in coker units. It is a direct replacement of coal as a fuel but has higher calorific value and causes huge emission of sulphur dioxide and other pollutants.
• Petcoke is abundantly used in India in several manufacturing industries such as cement, steel and textile and it is generated in vast quantities by refineries as it is significantly cheaper that coal, has high calorific value and is easier to transport and store.
• Petcoke is much more potent pollutant than coal and causes greater harm to the environment and health. It contains whopping 74,000 PPM of sulphur content which is released into atmosphere as emissions which is much higher than vehicular emissions.
• It is also source of fine dust, which can get through filtering process of human airway and lodge in lungs which can cause serious health problems. Apart from sulphur, petcoke also releases cocktail of other toxic gases after burning such as nitrous oxide, mercury, arsenic, chromium, nickel, hydrogen chloride and greenhouse gases (GHG) which contribute to global warming.

98

Consider the following statements regarding Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC):
1. OTEC is a process for producing energy by harnessing the temperature differences within ocean waters
2. India’s first OTEC plant is being established at Cambay Basin
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• OTEC is a form of energy conversion that makes use of the temperature differences between the warm surface waters of the oceans, heated by solar radiation, and the deeper cold waters to generate power in a conventional heat engine.

• Two of the biggest advantages of OTEC are that it produces clean environmentally friendly renewable energy and, unlike solar plants which can‘t work at night and wind turbines which only work when it‘s windy, OTEC can produce energy at all times.
• The National Institute of Ocean Technology, an autonomous institute under the Union Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) is establishing OTEC plant with a capacity of 65 kilowatt (kW) in Kavaratti, the capital of Lakshadweep.
• The plant will power the one lakh litre per day low temperature thermal desalination plant, which converts seawater into potable water.
• The plant is the first of its kind in the world as it will generate drinking water from sea water using indigenous technology, green energy and environmentally friendly processes.

99

With respect to Electoral Bonds, consider the following statements:
1. Electoral Bonds are financial instruments used for making donations to political parties
2. Only State Bank of India (SBI) is authorized to issue and encash these bonds
3. Political parties are mandated to disclose the donations received through electoral bonds as per an amendment to Representation of People’s Act 1951
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
• Electoral bonds are money instruments like promissory notes, which can be bought by companies and individuals in India from the State Bank of India (SBI) and donated to a political party, which can then encash these bonds. The bonds are only redeemable in the designated account of a registered political party. A person being an individual can buy bonds, either singly or jointly with other individuals.
• Only State Bank of India is authorised to issue and encash these bonds.
• Only the political parties registered under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 which secured at least 1% of votes polled in the last General Election to the Lok Sabha or the State Legislative Assembly are eligible to receive Electoral Bonds.
• Through an amendment to the Finance Act 2017, the Union government has exempted political parties from disclosing donations received through electoral bonds. This means the voters will not know which individual, company, or organization has funded which party, and to what extent.

100

“Atal New India Challenge” is an initiative of which of the following?

Answer Given: SKIPPED

Explanation:

Explanation:
 Atal New India Challenge is a flagship program of Atal Innovation Mission, NITI Aayog. The program aims to seek, select, support and nurture technology-based innovations that solve sectoral challenges of national importance and societal relevance.  ANIC solicits innovations in the prototype stage and supports the selected startups through to the commercialization stage over a course of 12 – 18 months. Its objectives are: To incentivize innovations in areas critical to India‘s development and growth – Education, Health, Water and Sanitation Agriculture, Food Processing, Housing, Energy, Mobility, Space Application etc. To address the Commercialization Valley of Death (Gap between the research and commercialization) - supporting innovators scale over the risks associated with access to resources for testing, piloting and market creation.

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