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With reference to safeguards to civil servants, consider the following statements:
1. Members of all India services hold office during the pleasure of the Governor.
2.The civil servants are to be given reasonable opportunity to make representation against punishment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation: Members of All India Services hold office during the pleasure of the President. And, the reasonable opportunity of being heard is to be provided only for inquiry and not against punishment (42nd CAA). Hence, both the statements are incorrect.
Through the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 five subjects were transferred from State to Concurrent List.
Which of the following is one of them?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation: 42nd Constitution Amendment: Through the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 five subjects were transferred from State to Concurrent List.
They are 1. Education
2. Forests
3.Weights & Measures
4. Protection of Wild Animals and Birds
5. Administration of Justice.
Hence, option C is the correct answer
In terms of economics, poison pills are related to
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
The term poison pill refers to a defence strategy used by a target firm to prevent or discourage a potential hostile takeover by an acquiring company.
HenceOption D is the correct answer.
Al Aqsa Mosque sometimes seen in news is located in:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation: Al-Aqsa Mosque is in the Haram esh-Sharif in Jerusalem,
Al-Aqsa Mosque:
It is one of the holiest structures in the Islamic faith. It sits inside a 35-acre site known by Muslims as Haram al-Sharif, or the Noble Sanctuary, and by Jews as the Temple Mount. ?The site is part of the Old City of Jerusalem, sacred to Christians, Jews and Muslims.
It is believed to have been completed early in the eighth century and faces the Dome of the Rock, the golden-domed Islamic shrine that is a widely recognized symbol of Jerusalem
The United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization, UNESCO, has classified the Old City of Jerusalem and its walls as a World Heritage Site.
Consider the following statements about Notified Disaster:
1. Disasters are declared as ‘Notified Disaster’ by the Ministry of Home Affairs.
2. Lightening is a nationally notified disaster
3. NDRF constituted under the Disaster Management Act, 2005 is the primary fund for responses to notified disasters.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation: Only statement 1 is correct: Context: The Ministry of Home Affairs decided to treat COVID-19 as a notified disaster for the purpose of providing assistance under the State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF).
The SDRF is constituted under the Disaster Management Act, 2005 and is the primary fund available with state governments for responses to notified disasters
The Central government contributes 75 per cent towards the SDRF allocation for general category states and UTs, and over 90 per cent for special category states/UTs, which includes northeastern states, Sikkim, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand).
For SDRF, the Centre releases funds in two equal installments as per the recommendation of the Finance Commission.
On the other hand, the National Disaster Response Fund, which is also constituted under the Disaster Management Act, 2005 supplements the SDRF of a state, in case of a disaster of severe nature, provided adequate funds are not available in the SDRF.
The disasters covered under the SDRF include cyclones, droughts, tsunamis, hailstorms, landslides, avalanches and pest attacks among others. Background:
In the past, there have been demands from states to declare certain events as natural disasters, such as the Uttarakhand flood in 2013.
No legal provision to declare a national calamity: In 2001, the National Committee on Disaster Management mandated to look into the parameters that should define a national calamity did not suggest any fixed criterion. Disaster Management Act, 2005 provides for the effective management of disasters in India.
1. Overall responsibility: The Disaster Management Division of the Ministry of Home Affairs has the overall responsibility for national disaster response. 2. Funds: The Act provides for financial mechanisms like the National Disaster Mitigation Fund and similar funds at the state and district levels. 3. Authorities: 1. The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA), headed by the Prime Minister 2. State Disaster Management Authorities (SDMAs) headed by the Chief Ministers 3. District Disaster Management Authorities (DDMAs) headed by the District Collector or District Magistrate or Deputy Commissioner
Types of disasters: The High Power Committee on Disaster Management (1999) identified 31 disaster categories organised into five major sub-groups, which are:
Water and climate related disasters
Geological related disasters
Chemical industrial and nuclear related disasters
Biological related disasters, which includes biological disasters Epidemics
Cinque Island sometimes seen in news is located in:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation: Cinque Island :It is located between the Passage and Duncan Island towards the north side of Andaman and Nicobar Islands. ?It is further divided into North and South Cinque islands. ?It shares its boundaries with Wandoor Marine National Park, also commonly referred to as the Mahatma Gandhi Marine National Park. ?The passage between North Cinque Island and Rutland is called Manners Strait.
The passage between South Cinque and North Cinque is called Cinque Strait.
Consider the following statements with respect to Virus mutation
1. RNA viruses are prone to high mutation rates—up to a million times greater than the DNA-containing cells of their hosts.
2. The majority of mutations are harmful to a virus.
3. More a virus spreads, the more opportunities it has to replicate, the lower is its fixation rate will be, and the more the virus will evolve.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation: RNA viruses are prone to high mutation rates—up to a million times greater than the DNA-containing cells of their hosts.
The majority of mutations are harmful to a virus. Genetic surveys of sick people can help determine what’s known as the fixation rate, which is a measure of how often accumulated mutations become “fixed” within a viral population. Unlike mutation rate, this is measured over a period of time. So, the more a virus spreads, the more opportunities it has to replicate, the higher its fixation rate will be, and the more the virus will evolve.?
Hence, only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
What are “non-consumable tokens”, sometimes seen in the news?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation: In-app purchases are extra content or subscriptions that you buy inside an app. There are three types of in-app purchases—subscriptions, consumable tokens purchases, and non consumable tokens purchases.
Non-consumable in-app token purchases: Remove ads, Full game unlock, Upgrade to pro edition and Bonus game levels are examples of additional premium services. These tokens are bought one time and can be used with the same credentials on synced machines.
Hence, Option C is the correct answer.
With reference to “Global outage of Internet”, consider the following statements:
1. It is a situation where the Internet connectivity is collapsed or severely affected globally.
2. Global outage of the Internet happens only because of ISP failure.
3. Hacking or cyber-attacks on networks can’t cause a global outage of the Internet.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation: Only statement 1 is correct. Global outage of the Internet is a situation where the Internet connectivity is collapsed or severely affected globally. ISP failures, natural disasters, human error, and technology failure are the primary reasons that networks tend to fail, hacking and cyber-attacks on networks are increasingly becoming a serious threat in recent years and can cause global outage of the Internet.
Regarding the recent global internet outage which knocked out high-traffic sites like Amazon and Reddit was analysed by a company called Fastly. According to its report this was caused by a bug in its software that was triggered when one of its customers changed their settings.
With reference to “Spectrum”, consider the following statements:
1. Spectrum is invisible radio frequencies over which wireless communication happens.
2. Spectrum is divided into three categories: low, mid, and high-band.
3. Spectrum is an infinite resource and can accommodate a large number of devices.
4. Spectrum uses a low band for transmitting to longer distances with ultra-fast speeds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation: Only statements 1 and 2 are correct.?Spectrum is the invisible radio frequencies (used for communication) that wireless signals travel over. The frequencies we use for wireless are only a portion of what is called the electromagnetic spectrum. It is of finite range and can accommodate a number of devices as per free availability. Government holds auctioning of spectrum to earn revenue and proper management of finite resources. ?Different bands have slightly different characteristics. Generally, in the case of communication the spectrum is divided in three categories: low, mid, and high-band spectrum. Low band spectrum travels longer distances, but the offered speed is quite low. One must use high band spectrum (above 24 GHz) to get ultra-high speed.
Consider the following statements regarding Collective Investment Scheme.
1. A Collective Investment Scheme is an investment scheme where various individuals come together and pool their money in order to invest their whole fund collection in a particular asset.
2.They are regulated by Securities Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
3. Mutual funds are an example for Collective Investment Scheme in India. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
A Collective Investment Scheme is an investment scheme where various individuals come together and pool their money in order to invest their whole fund collection in a particular asset. The returns and profits arising from this investment would be shared as per the agreement finalized amongst the investors prior to the act. Collective Investment Schemes, on a global scale, has broader connotations which include mutual funds as well. However, the Schemes, as prescribed in Section 11AA of the SEBI Act of 1992, excludes mutual funds and other schemes in India. The Securities Exchange Board of India regulates them under the SEBI (Collective Investment Scheme) Regulations of 1999.
Battle of Rezang La, was fought during
Answer Given: SKIPPED
November 18, 2023, is the 61st anniversary of the Battle of Rezang La, one of the few bright spots in the War of 1962 with China. On that day, 13 Kumaon’s C Company made their heroic last stand against the Chinese army in the high Himalayas of Ladakh, warding off a very significant threat and, in the process, writing a glorious chapter in India’s military history.
Which of the following was/were not related to Buddha’s life?
1. Kanthaka
2. Alara kalama
3. Channa
4. Goshala Makhali Putra
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Kanthaka was Buddha’s favourite horse. Alara Kalama was the first teacher of Buddha. Channa was the name of his charioteer. These three are related to Buddha’s life. Goshala Makhali Putra who was the contemporary of Buddha, considered to be an important leader in Ajivika philosophy. So, Option A is correct.
Consider the following statements.
1. Car Nicobar is the southernmost of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
2. The Andaman Islands lie to the north of Ten Degree channel, and the Nicobar Islands to the south.
3. Great Nicobar is home to Shompen and Nicobarese tribal peoples.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Great Nicobar, the southernmost of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, has an area of 910 sq km. The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are a cluster of about 836 islands in the eastern Bay of Bengal, the two groups of which are separated by the 150-km wide Ten Degree Channel. The Andaman Islands lie to the north of the channel, and the Nicobar Islands to the south.
Great Nicobar is home to two national parks, a biosphere reserve, and the Shompen and Nicobarese tribal peoples.
Paumachariyam deals with
which one of the following?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Paumachariyam is a Jain version of Ramayana written by Vimalasuri. The Paumachariyam is only one among many in the long tradition of Ramakatha among Jains, although it is oldest and the best-known. So, Option B is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding Great Nicobar Island.
1. Indira Point on the southern tip of Great Nicobar Island is India’s southernmost point.
2. The Great Nicobar Island has tropical wet evergreen forests, mountain ranges and coastal plains.
3. The leatherback sea turtle is the island’s flagship species.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Indira Point on the southern tip of Great Nicobar Island is India’s southernmost point, less than 150 km from the northernmost island of the Indonesian archipelago.
The Great Nicobar Island has tropical wet evergreen forests, mountain ranges reaching almost 650 m above sea level, and coastal plains. Fourteen species of mammals, 71 species of birds, 26 species of reptiles, 10 species of amphibians, and 113 species of fish are found on the island, some of which are endangered. The leatherback sea turtle is the island’s flagship species.
With reference to the religion and religious organizations in ancient India, consider the following statements:
1. Tantricism was developed due to large-scale admission of the aboriginal people in brahmanical society.
2. According to Jainism, women cannot become Tirthankars.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
The most remarkable development in the religious field in India from about the Sixth century A.D was the spread of tantricism. It admitted both women and Surdas into its ranks, and laid great stress on the use of magic rituals. It was intended to satisfy the material desires of the devotees for physical possessions and to cure the disease and injuries. Obviously, tantricism arose as a result of the large scale admission of the aboriginal people in brahmanical society. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The Jains split into two groups: Digambara and Svetambara. The Digambara monks live completely naked whereas Svetambara monks can have simple white clothing. Digambara Jain believe that women can’t be Tirthankars whereas Svetambara Jains believe that Tirthankars can be men or women. So, Statement 2 is not correct
Consider the following statements.
1. Reduction in mortality always leads to a rising population.
2. The total fertility rate (TFR) is the number of babies an average woman bears over her lifetime.
3. Populations can keep growing even with total fertility rates (TFRs) falling.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Reduction in mortality normally leads to a rising population. But not always. Population rise or decline also depends on fertility rate.
-A drop in fertility, on the other hand, slows down population growth, ultimately resulting in absolute declines. The total fertility rate (TFR) — the number of babies an average woman bears over her lifetime.
-A TFR of 2.1 is considered as “replacement-level fertility”. Simply understood, a woman having two children basically replaces herself and her partner with two new lives. Since all infants may not survive to realize their reproductive potential, the replacement TFR is taken at slightly above two. It ensures that each generation replaces itself.
-Populations can keep growing even with TFRs falling. De-growth requires TFRs to remain below replacement levels for extended periods. The effects of that — fewer children today becoming parents tomorrow and procreating just as much or less — may reflect only after a couple of generations.
Consider the following statements regarding Sinkholes.
1. Sinkholes are depressions formed in the ground when layers of the Earth’s surface start collapsing into caverns.
2. They are formed in areas of “karst” terrains, where the rock below the surface of the Earth can be easily dissolved by groundwater.
3. They are formed due to natural processes or human activity.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Sinkholes are depressions formed in the ground when layers of the Earth’s surface start collapsing into caverns. They can occur suddenly and without warning, because the land under the surface of the Earth can stay intact for a period of time until the spaces get too big.
Sinkholes can be formed due to natural processes or human activity. Typically, sinkholes form in areas of “karst” terrains, where the rock below the surface of the Earth can be easily dissolved by groundwater.
Essentially, this means that when rainwater seeps into the ground, the rock below the surface of the Earth starts dissolving, leading to the creation of spaces. This process is a slow and gradual one and can sometimes take hundreds or thousands of years.
The earliest Epigraphical evidence regarding Bhagavatism in India comes from
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Ruler Bhagabhadra of the Shunga dynasty, along with Indo Greek ambassador Heliodors established Besanagar inscription (or Garuda dvija) was the earliest epigraphical evidence of Bhagavadism or Bhagavata worship (10 avatars of Vishnu).
So, option B is correct.
Pick the correct statements from below.
1. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) normally pays the dividend to the Central Government from the surplus income it earns on investments and valuation changes on its dollar holdings and the fees it gets from printing currency.
2. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has developed an Economic Capital Framework (ECF) for determining the allocation of funds to its capital reserves so that any risk contingency can be met.
3. The RBI cannot access contingency fund
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Under reverse repo, the RBI borrows from banks, while under the repo window, RBI lends to banks.
-The RBI can bank on the Contingency Fund which was at Rs 3,10,986.94 crore as of March 2022 in the case of any emergency requirement.
-The RBI normally pays the dividend from the surplus income it earns on investments and valuation changes on its dollar holdings and the fees it gets from printing currency, among others. The rupee depreciation against the dollar in recent months is also likely to weigh on the surplus transfer.
-In the Investment Revaluation Account-Foreign Securities (IRA-FS), the foreign dated securities are marked-to market on the last business day of each week ending Friday and the last business day of each month and the unrealized gains or losses are transferred to the IRAFS.
-The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has developed an Economic Capital Framework (ECF) for determining the allocation of funds to its capital reserves so that any risk contingency can be met and as well as to transfer the profit of the RBI to the government.
Consider the following statements:
1. In Ancient India, only Kshatriyas were allowed to become kings.
2. Buddha was never depicted as chandala in Jataka stories.
3. Both men and women were allowed to join Buddhism. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
According to the Shastras, only Kshatriyas could be kings. However, several important ruling lineages probably have different origins. The Shungas and Kanvas, the immediate successors of the Mauryas, were Brahmanas. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
Matanga Jataka, a Pali text, where the Bodhisatta(the Buddha in a previous birth) is identified as a chandala. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
Women were admitted to the sangha and thus brought on a par with men. People were taken into the Buddhist order without any consideration of caste. So, Statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding Currency and Gold Revaluation Account (CGRA) and pick the correct ones.
1. The Currency and Gold Revaluation Account (CGRA) is maintained by the Reserve Bank of India to take care of currency risk, interest rate risk and movement in gold prices.
2. It can come under pressure if there is a depreciation of the rupee vis-à-vis major currencies or a rise in the price of gold.
Answer Given: SKIPPED
The Currency and Gold Revaluation Account (CGRA) is maintained by the Reserve Bank to take care of currency risk, interest rate risk and movement in gold prices.
Unrealised gains or losses on valuation of foreign currency assets (FCA) and gold are not taken to the income account but instead accounted for in the CGRA.
CGRA provides a buffer against exchange rate/ gold price fluctuations. It can come under pressure if there is an appreciation of the rupee vis-à-vis major currencies or a fall in the price of gold.
When CGRA is not sufficient to fully meet exchange losses, it is replenished from the Contingency Fund (CF).
Match List I and List II and select the correct answer using the codes below:
List I (Ports) List II (Location)
A. Barygaza 1. Western Coast
B. Muziris 2. Malabar Coast
C. Sopara 3. The Eastern coast of India
D. Camera 4. At the mouth of the Narmada river
Codes:
A B C D
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Sopara or suppala is an ancient port present on the present-day Marathi coast on the western coast of India. Muziri is an ancient port present with the Travancore kingdom on the Malabar coast. Bhrigukachcha or Barygaza is present in the mouth of the Narmada river interfacing the sea at the Kathiawar coast.
Camara or Kalapattana belonging to the Pandian kingdom was present on the present-day coromandel coast on the Eastern coast of India.
So, option A is correct.
Pick the correct statements from below.
1. Article 13(2) provides that the state shall not make any law that takes away or abridges the rights conferred in Part III of the Constitution of India and any law made in contravention of this clause shall be void.
2. Article 141 states that all authorities, civil and judicial, in the territory of India shall act in aid of the Supreme Court.
3. Article 144 states that the law declared by the Supreme Court is binding on all courts in India.
Answer Given: SKIPPED
The Constitution confers fundamental and other rights on the people of India. But, as B R Ambedkar said, “All of us are aware of the fact that rights are nothing unless remedies are provided whereby people can seek to obtain redress when rights are invaded”. Thus, was born Article 32 of the Constitution, which confers the right to move the Supreme Court for their enforcement. Article 13(2) is a unique provision and provides that “the state shall not make any law that takes away or abridges the rights, conferred by this part and any law made in contravention of this clause shall, to the extent of the contravention, be void”.
The framers of the Constitution were clear in Articles 141 and 144. Article 141 states that the law declared by the Supreme Court is binding on all courts within the territory of India. Article 144 states that all authorities, civil and judicial, in the territory of India shall act in aid of the Supreme Court.
Which of the following Mahajanapadas is located south of Vindhyas?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
There are 16 large states called mahajanapadas. They were mostly situated north of the Vindhyas and extended from the north-west frontier to Bihar. The one which is located south of Vindhyas is Asmaka. So, Option D is correct.
Consider the following statements.
1. The Unemployment Rate is the percentage of people in the labour force who demanded work but did not get it.
2. The labour force participation rate includes those who are employed and those who are looking for work but unable to get it.
3. The fall in Unemployment Rate definitely indicates that more jobs are being created.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
The Unemployment Rate (or UER) is the percentage of people in the labour force (LFPR) who demanded work but did not get it So, what has been happening over the past decade is that the Labour Force Participation Rate in India has been falling. Labour force participation rate is defined as the section of working population in the age group of 16-64 in the economy currently employed or seeking employment. People who are still undergoing studies, housewives and persons above the age of 64 are not reckoned in the labour force. As such, often when it appears that UER has fallen, it is not because more jobs have been created but because fewer people have demanded jobs (in other words, the LFPR has fallen). Since millions do not formally “demand” work, there is an undercounting of unemployed people in India. This is why UER fails to adequately capture the unemployment distress in India.
Consider the following statements:
1. Buddhism does not recognize existence of Soul contrary to the Upanishads.
2. Buddhism discarded the theory of karma, rebirth and liberation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Buddhism does not recognise the existence of God and unchanging Soul(atman). Soul is recognized in Buddhism albeit its constant nature is denied. Upanishads, in adveda vedanta interpretation, believes that atman or the individual soul and the Brahman or Universal soul are one and it is unchanging. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
Buddha taught that the result of our actions called karma, whether good or bad affect us both in this life and the next. It followed the doctrine of Karma. Rebirth is one of the principal beliefs in Buddhism. The Buddha emphasised individual agency and righteous action as the means to escape from the cycle of rebirth and attain self- realisation and nibbana, literally the extinguishing of the ego and desire and thus end the cycle of suffering for those who have successfully renounced the world. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
“Angel investor” means any person who proposes to invest in an angel fund and satisfies which of the following conditions?
1. Has experience as a serial entrepreneur
2. Has early-stage investment experience
3. Is a senior management professional with at least ten years of experience.
Select the correct answer code:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
“Angel investor” means any person who proposes to invest in an angel fund and satisfies one of the following conditions, namely,
(a) an individual investor who has net tangible assets of at least two crore rupees excluding value of his principal residence, and who:
(i) has early stage investment experience, or
(ii) has experience as a serial entrepreneur, or
(iii) is a senior management professional with at least ten years of experience;
(‘Early stage investment experience’ shall mean prior experience in investing in start-up or emerging or early-stage ventures and ‘serial entrepreneur’ shall mean a person who has promoted or co-promoted more than one start-up venture.)
Consider the following statements regarding Ashoka’s policy of Dhamma.
1. The policy of Dhamma was an earnest attempt at solving some of problems and tensions faced by a complex society.
2. The policy gave elaborate descriptions of metaphysical aspects of life and reality.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Ashoka taught people to live and let live. He emphasised compassion towards animals and proper behaviour towards relatives. Its broad objective was to preserve the social order on the basis of tolerance. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Dhamma did not involve worship of a god, or performance of a sacrifice. Ashoka disapproved of rituals, especially those observed by women. He forbade killing certain birds and animals, and completely prohibited the slaughter of animals in the capital. It focused on the general behaviour of people and had nothing to do with metaphysics (existence of God/ Soul etc.). So, Statement 2 is not correct.
Consider the following statements.
1. Central Depositories Services India Ltd is a Market Infrastructure Institution that is deemed as a crucial part of the capital market structure.
2. Central Depositories Services India Ltd provides services to all market participants except retail investors.
3. Share depositories hold shares in an electronic or dematerialised form and are an enabler for securities transactions.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
CDSL, or Central Depositories Services India Ltd, is a government-registered share depository, alongside its other state-owned counterpart National Securities Depository Ltd (NSDL).
Share depositories hold shares in an electronic or dematerialised form and are an enabler for securities transactions, playing a somewhat similar role to what banks play in handling cash and fixed deposits. While banks help customers keep their cash in electronic form, share depositories help consumers store shares in a dematerialised form.
CDSL was founded in 1999. It is a Market Infrastructure Institution or MII that is deemed as a crucial part of the capital market structure, providing services to all market participants, including exchanges, clearing corporations, depository participants, issuers and investors including retail investors.
Which of the Pairs given below is/are correctly matched?
SECTS OF BUDDHISM - PRINCIPLE/SPECIAL CHARACTER
1. Hinayana - Based on buddha’s teachings.
2. Mahayana - Believed in an eternal Buddha.
3. Vajrayanism - Based on magico-religious rituals and an offshoot of Hinayana.
Select the correct answers using the code given below.
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Hinayana Buddhism considered Buddha to be mortal and his teachings were ethical values that defined the way humans should live. Mahayana Buddhism believed in an Eternal Buddha who will live forever and is like a God who is unending. Vajrayana or Tantric Buddhism, which evolved by combining Brahminical (Veda based) rituals with Buddhist philosophies. Vajrayanism is considered to be an offshoot of Mahayana faction.
Consider the following statements regarding two schools that originated from earliest Buddhism.
1. Sthaviravada believed in Bodhisattva.
2. Mahasangika was doctrinally similar with Hinayana Buddhism faction.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
The First Buddhist Council was convened at 400 BCE at which the rules governing the community (the sangha) were established and the Buddha’s "true" teachings were separated from "false" legends that had already grown up around him. At the Second Council of 383 BCE, different factions within the sangha offered their own interpretations of these teachings and of the rules previously agreed to. Disagreements led to one group, later known as the Sthaviravada school, separating from the main body and declaring they, alone, understood Buddha’s vision. The larger remaining group became Mahasanghika – the Great Congregation – which had more adherents than Sthaviravada – and also claimed it alone understood the Buddha’s message.
The Sthaviravada school took Buddha’s admonition that each person should seek their own enlightenment and turned their focus inward toward each member of the sect working to become an arhat (saint) with no responsibility for anyone else. Mahasanghika took the example of Buddha’s life – complete selflessness in service to others – as their model and believed each person could become a Bodhisattva (“essence of enlightenment”) and it was a Buddhist’s responsibility, after attaining enlightenment, to help others achieve the same state.
More schools developed out of these first two and, by the late 3rd century BCE, there were many which included Mahayana. Around 283 BCE, the Mahasanghika school divided over whether the teachings of Mahayana were worthy of acceptance as it was doctrinally similar with Mahayana. Sometime shortly after this, Mahasanghika either died out or merged with Mahayana. It is unclear what happened to the school, but later texts state that they lost the authority to ordain monks which must have meant that some larger and more powerful school of thought now claimed that right. The only school with that kind of power at the time was Mahayana.
The Final Compilation of Three Pitakas (Buddhist scriptures) was completed in
Answer Given: SKIPPED
None of the Buddha’s speeches were written down during his lifetime. After his death, his teachings were complied by his disciples. These complications were known as Tipitaka. The Vinaya Pitaka included rules and regulations for those who joined the sangha or monastic order; the Buddha’s teachings were included in the Sutta Pitaka; and the Abhidhamma Pitaka dealt with philosophical matters. The Abhidhamma Pitaka was composed in Third Buddhist council making the almost completion of the Tipitaka.
Consider the following statements regarding CITES Agreement.
1. CITES is an international agreement between governments to ensure that international trade in wild animals and plants does not threaten the survival of the species.
2. When a country becomes a party to the CITES, all import, export and re-export of species covered under CITES must be authorised through a permit system.
Pick the correct statements from above.
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora is an international agreement between governments — 184 at present — to ensure that international trade in wild animals and plants does not threaten the survival of the species. The convention entered into force in 1975 and India became the 25th party — a state that voluntarily agrees to be bound by the Convention — in 1976.
All import, export and re-export of species covered under CITES must be authorised through a permit system.
Every two years, the Conference of the Parties (CoP), the supreme decision-making body of CITES, applies a set of biological and trade criteria to evaluate proposals from parties to decide if a species should be in Appendix 1 or 2.
Species that are in danger of extinction are included in Appendix 1. Asiatic lions and tigers (tiger skin trade), Sea turtles, gorillas, lady slippers orchids (most species), etc. are in the list. There is total 931 species are in the list.
Species that aren’t facing imminent extinction but need monitoring so that any trade doesn’t become a threat are included in Appendix 2. American Alligators (Alligator skin trade), Paddlefish, Mahogany, corals, etc. are included in this list. There is total 34,419 species in the list.
Species that are protected in at least one country are included in Appendix 3. Regulations for these species vary, but typically the country that requested the listing can issue export permits, and export from other countries requires a certificate of origin. Honeybadger (medicinal or bushmeat purpose), Walruses, Map turtles, certain beetles, etc. are included in the list. Total 147 species are in the list.
Consider the following statements.
1. CITES Appendix 1 lists species threatened with extinction and import or export permits for these species are completely banned.
2. CITES Appendix 2 includes species not necessarily threatened with extinction but in which trade must be strictly regulated.
3. The endangered Asian elephant is included in CITES Appendix 1.
4. India has banned the domestic sales of ivory.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
CITES Appendix 1 lists species threatened with extinction — import or export permits for these are issued rarely and only if the purpose is not primarily commercial. CITES Appendix 2 includes species not necessarily threatened with extinction but in which trade must be strictly regulated.
The international ivory trade was globally banned in 1989 when all African elephant populations were put in CITES Appendix 1. However, the populations of Namibia, Botswana, and Zimbabwe were transferred to Appendix 2 in 1997, and South Africa’s in 2000 to allow two “one-off sales” in 1999 and 2008 of ivory stockpiled from natural elephant deaths and seizures from poachers.
The endangered Asian elephant was included in CITES Appendix 1 in 1975, which banned the export of ivory from the Asian range countries. In 1986, India amended The Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 to ban even domestic sales of ivory. After the ivory trade was globally banned, India again amended the law to ban the import of African ivory in 1991.
Consider the following statements:
1. In Jainism, a Tirthankar or Jina is a human being who achieves enlightenment through asceticism and who then becomes a role-model teacher for those seeking spiritual guidance.
2. In the 4th century CE, Jainism developed two major divisions Digambara (sky clad ascetics) and Svetambara (white robed ascetics).
3. Both Digambara and Svetambara believed that women are capable of spiritual accomplishments as like men.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Tirthankara, according to Jainism, is a savior and spiritual teacher of Jain dharma who conquered Samsara, the cycle of death and rebirth. So, statement 1 is correct.
Famine in Magadha lead Badrabahu to move to South India in the 4th century. This lead to the division of Jainism into two major divisions Digambara (sky clad ascetics) and Svetambara (white robed ascetics). So, statement 2 is correct.
Digambara sect believes that women cannot become a Thirthankara nor can they achieve salvation while the Svetambhar sect considers Mallinath (Thirthankara) to be a woman. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Consider the following statements.
1. In India, the Laws empower the State Governments to undertake effective measures to mitigate the harms caused during a medical emergency.
2. India is not a signatory to the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights.
Pick the correct Statements from above.
Answer Given: SKIPPED
The Disaster Management Act of 2005 and the Epidemic Diseases Act of 1897 empower the States to undertake effective measures to mitigate the harms caused during a medical emergency.
Being a signatory to the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights, India is bound to take all possible measures to progressively realise the enjoyment of “highest attainable standard of physical and mental health” of its citizens under Article 12 thereof.
The term “Mahabhinishkrama” stands for
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Gautama Buddha encountered human sufferings such as old age, death, and disease. He was moved by the misery which people suffered in the world, and looked for its solution. At the age of 29, he left home. This is called “the great departure’ or Mahabinishkramana.
Consider the following statements regarding Trademark.
1. A trademark is a symbol, design, word or phrase that is identified with a business.
2. When a trademark is registered, its owner can claim exclusive rights on its use.
3. A trademark is valid indefinitely without any renewal. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
A trademark is a symbol, design, word or phrase that is identified with a business. When a trademark is registered, its owner can claim “exclusive rights” on its use. A trademark is valid for 10 years and can be renewed by the owner indefinitely every 10 years.
Consider the following statements.
1. In India, the trademark registered with the Controller General of Patents, Designs, and Trademarks is protected by law.
2. Using a registered trademark without authorisation of the entity that owns the trademark is a violation or infringement of the trademark.
3. Using a substantially similar mark for similar goods or services does not amount to infringement of the trademark.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
-The Trademark Act,1999, governs the regime on trademark and its registration. The Act guarantees protection for a trademark that is registered with the Controller General of Patents, Designs, and Trademarks, also known as the trademark registry.
-Using a registered trademark without authorisation of the entity that owns the trademark is a violation or infringement of the trademark.
-Using a substantially similar mark for similar goods or services could also amount to infringement. In such cases, courts have to determine whether this can cause confusion for consumers between the two.
-There are several ways in which a trademark can be infringed. However, the trademark owner has to show that the trademark has a distinct character.
Consider the following statements:
1. The family of Mahavira was connected with the royal family of Magadha.
2. Gautama Buddha was born in a Republic state. Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Vardhamana Mahavira was believed to be born in 540 B.C. near Vaishali, in north Bihar. His father Siddartha was the head of the Jnatrika clan and his mother Trishala was the sister of the Lichchhavi chief Chetaka, whose daughter Chellana was wedded to king Bimbisara of Magadha. Thus, Mahavira’s family was connected with the royal family of Magadha. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Gautama Buddha was born in Lumbini in Nepal near Kapilavastu. Gautama’s father seems to have been the elected ruler of Kapilavastu, and headed the republic clan of the Shakyas. The most important republics among the mahajanapadas were the Sakyas of Kapilavastu and the Licchavis of Vaishali. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding Additional Tier-1 (AT1) bonds.
1. AT1 bonds are unsecured bonds that have no maturity date.
2. They have a call option, which can be used by the banks to buy these bonds back from investors.
3. These bonds are typically used by banks to bolster their core or tier-1 capital.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
What are AT1 bonds?
AT1 bonds are unsecured bonds that have perpetual tenor. In other words, these bonds, issued by banks, have no maturity date. They have a call option, which can be used by the banks to buy these bonds back from investors. These bonds are typically used by banks to bolster their core or tier-1 capital.
United Nations Global Compact is associated with
Answer Given: SKIPPED
The United Nations Global Compact is a non-binding United Nations pact to encourage businesses and firms worldwide to adopt sustainable and socially responsible policies, and to report on their implementation. The UN Global Compact is a principle-based framework for businesses, stating ten principles in the areas of human rights, labor, the environment and anti-corruption. Under the Global Compact, companies are brought together with UN agencies, labor groups and civil society.
Alexander the Greek ruler invaded India between 326-325 B.C. who among the following were the contemporary of Alexander?
1. Ajatsatru
2. Dana Nanda
3. Bindusara
4. Pushyamitra Sunga
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Ajatsatru succeeded the throne of Haryanka dynasty during (492-460 BCE.). So, Option 1 is not correct. Alexander the Great invaded India in 326 BC during the rule of Dhanananda. He reigned between 329-321 BCE. So, Option 2 is correct.
Chandragupta Maurya was succeeded by Bindusara who reigned between 297-273 BCE. So, Option 3 is not correct.
Pushyamitra Sunga founded the Shunga dynasty in around 185 - 183 B.C after the end of Mauryan rule by last ruler Brihadratha. So, Option 4 is not correct.
Non-performing Assets (NPAs) are loans made by a bank or finance company on which repayments or interest payments are not being made on time.
How do high NPAs affect the Banks in India?
1. Banks tend to lower the interest rates on deposits.
2. Adds to risk weighted assets.
3. Results in higher interest income.
Select the correct code from below.
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Statement 1 – In the light of high NPAs, Banks tend to lower the interest rates on deposits on one hand and likely to levy higher interest rates on advances.
Statement 2 – As per Basel norms, banks are required to maintain adequate capital on risk-weighted assets on an ongoing basis. Every increase in NPA level adds to risk weighted assets which warrant the banks to shore up their capital base further.
Statement 3 – The increased NPAs put pressure on recycling of funds and reduces the ability of banks for lending more and thus results in lesser interest income.
Consider the following statements about the invasion of Alexander, the Greek ruler.
1. He defeated the ruler of Magadhan Empire.
2. Greek Gold coins were introduced in India.
3. New trade routes were discovered between India and Europe.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Battle of the Hydaspes:
In 326 BCE, Alexander confronted Porus, the ruler of the Pauravas, during the Battle of the Hydaspes (modern-day Jhelum River in Pakistan). Despite emerging victorious, this battle was one of the Macedonians’ most costly engagements. Porus displayed immense courage and heroism, leaving a lasting impression on Alexander.
Confrontation with the Nanda Empire:
As Alexander continued his eastward march, he found himself on a collision course with the Nanda Empire, which was centered in Magadha. The Nanda dynasty ruled over a powerful and prosperous kingdom in the northern part of the Indian subcontinent. However, due to various factors, including the loyalty of his soldiers, Alexander’s army did not proceed further into Magadha. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
The Indo- Greeks (came to India around 180 BC) were the first to issue gold coins in India. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
Alexander's invasion did open up new trade routes between India and Europe. And subsequently trade improved substantially.
Consider the following statements regarding loan write-off.
1. Writing off a loan essentially means it will no longer be counted as an asset, by the bank.
2. The amount so written off reduces the bank’s tax liability.
3. After the write-off, banks are not supposed to continue their efforts to recover the loan.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Writing off a loan essentially means it will no longer be counted as an asset. By writing off loans, a bank can reduce the level of non-performing assets (NPAs) on its books. An additional benefit is that the amount so written off reduces the bank’s tax liability.
The bank writes off a loan after the borrower has defaulted on the loan repayment and there is a very low chance of recovery. The lender then moves the defaulted loan, or NPA, out of the assets side and reports the amount as a loss.
After the write-off, banks are supposed to continue their efforts to recover the loan using various options. They have to make provisioning as well. The tax liability will also come down as the written-off amount is reduced from the profit.
However, the chances of recovery from written-off loans are very low.
Private banks wrote off loans worth Rs 2,74,772 crore in the last five years in their effort to bring down NPAs and whitewash their balance sheets.
Public sector banks reported the lion’s share of write-offs at Rs 734,738 crore accounting for 72.78 per cent of the exercise.
The Greeks introduced an administrative system called “Strategos.” It stands for
Answer Given: SKIPPED
The Greeks introduced the practice of military governorship. They appointed their governors called Strategos. Military governors were necessary to maintain the power of the new rulers over the conquered people. So, Option C is correct.
Semi-automated offside technology, recently seen in news is mainly used in
Answer Given: SKIPPED
FIFA has implemented what they call “semi-automated offside technology” this World Cup.
According to FIFA, “The new technology uses 12 dedicated tracking cameras mounted underneath the roof of the stadium to track the ball and up to 29 data points of each individual player, 50 times per second, calculating their exact position on the pitch. The 29 collected data points include all limbs and extremities that are relevant for making offside calls.”
The Buddhist philosopher of Kashmir origin, who took a leading part in propagating Mahayana Buddhism in Central Asia and China was
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Kumarajiva (born 350 CE) belonged to a politically powerful Kashmiri family with the matrilineal origin of the Kucha kingdom of the silk route. He became famous when he mastered the languages of Sanskrit and Chinese, which helped him translate Buddhist texts from Sanskrit to Chinese, which helped him propagate Mahayana Buddhism in China, East Asia, and Central Asia. So, option A is correct.
Consider the following statements.
1. A fault is a place with a long break in the rock that forms the surface of the earth.
2. When an earthquake occurs on one of the faults, the rock on one side of the fault slips with respect to the other.
3. Indonesia is located on the fault lines in the Pacific Basin.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
A fault is a place with a long break in the rock that forms the surface of the earth. When an earthquake occurs on one of these faults, the rock on one side of the fault slips with respect to the other.
Does Indonesia usually have earthquakes like this?
The country of more than 270 million people is frequently struck by earthquakes, volcanic eruptions and tsunamis because of its location on the arc of volcanoes and fault lines in the Pacific Basin known as the “Ring of Fire.” The area spans some 40,000 kilometers (25,000 miles) and is where a majority of the world’s earthquakes occur.
Consider the following statements:
1. The history of the Indo-Greeks can be reconstructed mainly on the evidence of their coins.
2. Diodotus I was the founder of the Greco-Bactrian Kingdom
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Indo Greek history has been constructed with the help of coins found, engraved in both Indian and Greek inscriptions. They contained names of Indo Greek kings, Indian deities, and phrases. They were the major source of evidence of Indo greeks. So, statement 1 is correct.
The contributions of Indo Greeks include the usage of stone building, science from Greek, Philosophical and religious exchange, coinage, art, famous Gandhara style of sculptures, and medicine.
Diodotus I was the founder of the Greco-Bactrian Kingdom, which was a precursor to the Indo-Greek Kingdoms.
Consider the following statements regarding Ahom kingdom.
1. The Ahom kings ruled large parts of what is now known as Assam.
2. It was a multi-ethnic kingdom which spread across the upper and lower reaches of the Brahmaputra valley.
3. Ahom Kingdom was finally annexed by the Mughals during the reign of Aurangzeb.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
The Ahom kings ruled large parts of what is now known as Assam for nearly 600 years, from the early 13th century to the early 19th century. This was a prosperous, multi-ethnic kingdom which spread across the upper and lower reaches of the Brahmaputra valley, surviving on rice cultivation in its fertile lands.
The Ahoms engaged in a series of conflicts with the Mughals from 1615-1682, starting from the reign of Jahangir till the reign of Aurangzeb. One of the major early military conflicts was in January 1662, where the Mughals won a partial victory, conquering parts of Assam and briefly occupying Garhgaon, the Ahom capital.
The counter-offensive to reclaim lost Ahom territories started under Ahom King Swargadeo Chakradhwaja Singha. After the Ahoms enjoyed some initial victories, Aurangzeb dispatched Raja Ram Singh I of Jaipur in 1669 to recapture the lost territory — eventually resulting in the Battle of Saraighat in 1671.
The Battle of Saraighat was a decisive naval encounter between the Ahom Kingdom and the Mughal Empire in 1671. It was fought on the banks of the Brahmaputra River, at Saraighat, now in Guwahati, Assam. The Mughals, led by the Kachwaha raja, Ram Singh I, were defeated by the Ahom Kingdom, led by Lachit Borphukan. This battle marked the last attempt by the Mughals to capture Assam.
Which of the following statements regarding Satavahanas is not correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Vasishthiputra Pulumayi (130-154 CE) was the son of Gautamiputra Satakarni and a Satavahana king. Pulumayi set up his capital at Paithan or Pratishan on the Godavari in Aurangabad district. The Sakas resumed their conflict with the Satavahanas for the possessions of the Konkan Coast and Malwa. Rudradaman I, the Sakas ruler of Saurashtra, defeated the Satavahanas twice, but did not destroy them on account of matrimonial relations. So, Option D is not correct.
Consider the following statements regarding Community Forest Resource (CFR) area.
1. The community forest resource area is the common forest land that has been traditionally protected and conserved for sustainable use by a particular community.
2. The community forest resource area may include revenue forest, deemed forest, sanctuary and national parks.
3. Community forest resource area can also be used for pastoral purpose.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
The community forest resource area is the common forest land that has been traditionally protected and conserved for sustainable use by a particular community. The community uses it to access resources available within the traditional and customary boundary of the village; and for seasonal use of landscape in case of pastoralist communities.
Each CFR area has a customary boundary with identifiable landmarks recognised by the community and its neighboring villages. It may include forest of any category – revenue forest, classified & unclassified forest, deemed forest, reserve forest, protected forest, sanctuary and national parks etc.
The purpose of the ”Mahanavami dibba” in Vijayanagar kingdom is
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Mahanavami dibba is a platform from where Vijayanagara kings used to stand and watch the processions of the Dasara festival. It is also known as Dasara nibba and it was built by Krishna Deva Raya during the Vijayanagara period after his victory over the Udyagiri. It is a UNESCO-protected site and currently is in a ruined state. So, option C is correct.
Consider the following statements.
1. A chargesheet is the final report prepared by a police officer or investigative agencies after completing their investigation of a case.
2. A chargesheet must be filed against the accused within a prescribed period, otherwise the arrest is illegal and the accused is entitled to bail.
3. The terms ‘chargesheet’ and ‘First Information Report (FIR)’ are defined in Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
A chargesheet, as defined under Section 173 CrPC, is the final report prepared by a police officer or investigative agencies after completing their investigation of a case.
After preparing the chargesheet, the officer-in-charge of the police station forwards it to a Magistrate, who is empowered to take notice of the offences mentioned in it. A chargesheet must be filed against the accused within a prescribed period of 60-90 days, otherwise the arrest is illegal, and the accused is entitled to bail. The term ‘chargesheet’ has been expressly defined under Section 173 of the CrPC but ‘First Information Report’ or FIR, has not been defined in either the Indian Penal Code (IPC) or the CrPC. Instead, it finds a place under the police regulations/ rules under Section 154 of CrPC, which deals with ‘Information in Cognizable Cases’. While the chargesheet is the final report filed towards the end of an investigation, an FIR is filed at the ‘first’ instance’ that the police is informed of a cognizable offense or offence for which one can be arrested without a warrant, such as rape, murder, kidnapping.
The name by which Ashoka is generally referred to his inscription is
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Ashoka’s Edict at Maski, Raichur district, Karnataka confirms the name Ashoka as “Devanampiya Priyadarsi” which means “ He who is the beloved servant of the Gods and who regards everyone amiably”. Ashoka’s name occurs only in copies of minor rock edicts - I found at three places in Karnataka and one in Madhya Pradesh. Whereas in all other inscriptions, he generally referred as “Devanampiya Priyadarsi”. So, Option D is correct.
Consider the following statements.
1. After Human body is exposed to a virus for the first time, it produces memory B cells that circulate in the bloodstream and quickly produce antibodies whenever the same strain of the virus infects again.
2. Immune imprinting is a tendency of the body to repeat its immune response based on the first variant it encountered, when the body comes across a newer or slightly different variant.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Since last September, countries like the UK and the US have rolled out variant-specific or bivalent boosters, in the hope that they would provide better protection against the coronavirus infection in comparison to the original vaccine. However, a slew of recent studies has shown that a phenomenon in our bodies, called immune imprinting, might be making these new boosters far less effective than expected.
What is immune imprinting?
Immune imprinting is a tendency of the body to repeat its immune response based on the first variant it encountered — through infection or vaccination — when it comes across a newer or slightly different variant of the same pathogen.
Consider the following statements
1. Jaina Agam literature was compiled in Ardhamagadhi language.
2. Agam literature was finally compiled at first Jain Council.
3. Non-agam literature was written in mostly Sanskrit language.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Jainism is one of the world's oldest religions. The Jainas believe that their religious system is the result of the twenty-four tirthankaras' teachings. Jaina teachings were originally passed down orally, but they were later compiled and recorded. The first Jain council was held at Pataliputra at the beginning of the 3rd century BCE and resulted in the compilation of the twelve Angas, whereas the second Jain council was held at Valabhi in the fifth century CE under the leadership of Devardhi Kshamasramana.
Jain literature is composed of Agam literature and Non-Agam literature. Agam literature or Agama sutras were compiled in Ardhamagadhi language, a Prakriti Language and was finally compiled in the second Jain council at Vallabhi (by Devardhi Kshamasaramana). Non-agam literature was written in many languages which contributed to the growth of many languages like Sanskrit, Tamil, Old Marathi, Rajasthani, Gujarati, and Hindi.
Consider the following statements regarding Bagasse.
1. Bagasse is the dry pulpy fibrous material that remains after crushing sugarcane or sorghum stalks to extract their juice.
2. It is primarily composed of lignin.
3. It is used as a biofuel for the production of heat, energy, and electricity.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Bagasse is another by-product of the sugar production process. It is a dry and pulpy residue left behind when sugarcane stalks are crushed. There is a similar material called ‘agave bagasse’ made from the agave plant. Bagasse is principally used in the manufacturing process of paper, pulp and building materials as well as a biofuel for the production of energy, heat and electricity.
Typically, dried bagasse is chemically made up of: 45-55% Cellulose
20-25% Hemicellulose
18-24% Lignin
1-4% Ash
<1% Waxes
With reference to Mahajanapadas and Sanghas, consider the following statements:
1. While most Mahajanapadas were monarchies ruled by one king, the Sanghas were ruled by oligarchies.
2. The founders of Jainism and Buddhism came from sangha states.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Angutara Nikaya, a Buddhist scripture mentions 16 great kingdoms or Mahajanapadas at the beginning of the 6th century BCE in India. They emerged during the Vedic Age. The history of the emergence of Mahajanapadas can be linked to the development of eastern Uttar Pradesh and western Bihar during the 6th to 4th century BCE where agriculture flourished due to the availability of fertile lands and iron production increased due to availability of iron ore in large quantities. This resulted in the expansion of the territories of the Janapadas (due to the use of iron weapons) and later addressed as 16 highly developed regions or the Mahajanapadas. There were 16 Mahajanapadas, of which 14 were monarchies ruled by one king, while Vajji and Malla were oligarchies ruled collectively by kings. So, statement 1 is correct. Both Mahavira and Buddha belonged to Sangha or Gana. Mahavira was a prince of Licchavi (part of Vajji sangha). Buddha born in Sakya clan which had a republic (Sangha) in Kapilavastu in modern day Nepal. So, statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the BharatNet project.
1. BharatNet project seeks to provide e-governance services to Gram Panchayats through an Optical Fibre network operated by Bharat Broadband Network Limited.
2. It is a Centre-state collaborative project funded by the Universal Service Obligation Fund.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
BharatNet:
BharatNet Project was originally launched in 2011 as the National Optical Fibre Network (NOFN) and renamed as Bharat-Net in 2015.
It seeks to provide connectivity to 2.5 lakh Gram Panchayats (GPs) through optical fibre. It is a flagship mission implemented by Bharat Broadband Network Ltd. (BBNL).
The objective is to facilitate the delivery of e-governance, e-health, e-education, e-banking, Internet and other services to rural India. It is a Centre-state collaborative project funded by the Universal Service Obligation Fund.
Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF) is the pool of funds generated by 5% Universal Service Levy that is charged upon all the telecom fund operators on their Adjusted Gross Revenue (AGR). This fund is deposited in the Consolidated Fund of India and is dispatched on the approval of the Indian Parliament.The USOF comes under the Indian Telegraph Act 1885. The act was amended in 2003 to give statutory status to the fund. The Department of Telecommunications, Ministry of Communications governs the fund and related provisions. The aim of USOF is to provide a balance between the provision of Universal Service to all uncovered areas, including the rural areas.
Consider the following statements about Shakas.
1. The most famous Shaka ruler in India was Rudradaman I.
2. He is famous in history because of the repairs he undertook to improve the Sudarshana lake.
3. He issued the first longest inscription in chaste Sanskrit.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
The most famous Shaka ruler in India was Rudradaman I. He ruled not only over Sindh, but also over a good part of Gujarat, Konkan, the Narmada valley, Malwa and Kathiawar. So, Statement 1 is correct.
He is famous in history because of the repairs he undertook to improve the Sudarshana lake in the semi- arid zone of Kathiawar. This lake had been in use for irrigation for a long time, and was as old as the time of the Mauryas. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Rudradaman was a great lover of Sanskrit. Although a foreigner settled in India, he issued the first-ever long inscription in chaste Sanskrit. All the earlier longer inscription that we have in this country were composed in Prakrit. So, Statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding Clean Development Mechanism (CDM).
1. The Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) is a market-based approach to reducing emissions of the greenhouse gases that contribute to climate change.
2. A CDM project activity might involve a rural electrification project using solar panels or the installation of more energy-efficient boilers.
3. The projects registered by India under the CDM is the highest in the world.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
-The Clean Development Mechanism (CDM), defined in Article 12 of the Protocol, allows a country with an emission-reduction or emission-limitation commitment under the Kyoto Protocol (Annex B Party) to implement an emission-reduction project in developing countries. Such projects can earn saleable certified emission reduction (CER) credits, each equivalent to one tonne of CO2, which can be counted towards meeting Kyoto targets.
-It is the first global, environmental investment and credit scheme of its kind, providing a standardized emission offset instrument, CERs.
-A CDM project activity might involve, for example, a rural electrification project using solar panels or the installation of more energy-efficient boilers.
-The projects registered by India under the CDM is not the highest in the world.
Which one of the following statements regarding Ashokan stone pillars is incorrect ?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
The pillars were usually made of Chunar sandstone and comprised of four parts. A long shaft formed the base and was made up of a single piece of stone or monolith. On top of it lay the capital, which was either lotus shaped or bell shaped. The bell shaped capitals were influenced by the Iranian pillars, as was the highly polished and lustrous finish of the pillars. Above the capital, there was a circular or rectangular base known on the abacus on which an animal figure was placed. It is a part of Mauryan art.
Pick the correct statements regarding Emergency Procurement (EP) through the fast-track procurement (FTP) route in India.
1. Emergency Procurement powers were granted to the armed forces by the Union Defence Ministry.
2. Under the FTP route, the armed forces can procure weapons systems without any financial limits, on an urgent basis without any further clearances to cut short the procurement cycle.
3. Such acquisitions are applicable only from indigenous sources.
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Emergency financial powers were granted to the armed forces by the Defence Ministry in the past on three occasions, post the Uri surgical strikes in 2016, the Balakot air strike in 2019 and the 2020 standoff with China in eastern Ladakh.
Under the FTP route, the forces can procure weapons systems up to 300 crores on an urgent basis without any further clearances to cut short the procurement cycle.
Such acquisitions are applicable for both indigenous sources and ex-import. FTP acquisitions can be categorised as under.
. Procurement of equipment already inducted into Service.
. Procurement of new equipment.
. Procurement of weapon system/platform, which is in service in a friendly foreign country and is available for transfer/lease or sale.
Which one of the following statements about Buddhist Stupas in India is not correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
In the 3rd century BC, Ashoka ordered eight stupas to be built and further distributed the relics of Buddha and other monks into 84,000 portions, which were to be included in Stupas built around the world. They were mostly located in trade routes for easy propagation of Buddhism but there no evidence for Stupas being located in rural areas. So, option C is not correct.
Consider the following statements.
1. The Election Commission of India draws its authority from the Constitution of India.
2. The Constitution does not fix the size of the Election Commission.
3. Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners enjoy the same status and receive salary and perks as Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Appointment of Chief Election Commissioner, Election Commissioners
The CEC and ECs are appointed by the President to a tenure of six years, or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. They enjoy the same status and receive salary and perks as judges of the Supreme Court of India.
The Election Commission of India draws its authority from the Constitution itself. Under Article 324, the powers of “superintendence, direction and control of elections” is to be vested in an Election Commission.
Size of the Election Commission
The Constitution does not fix the size of the Election Commission. Article 324(2) says that “the Election Commission shall consist of the Chief Election Commissioner and such number of other Election Commissioners, if any, as the President may from time to time fix”.
From the beginning, the Election Commission of India consisted of just the Chief Election Commissioner. However, on October 16, 1989, the government appointed two more Election Commissioners, making the Election Commission a multi-member body.
With reference to Mahajanapada kingdoms which was the capital of Koshala kingdom?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Kosala was one of the 16 Mahajanapadas and it had a monarchical style of governance. It was located near the present-day Uttar Pradesh and the capital of Koshala was Shravasti. So, option C is correct.
Consider the following statements.
1. The Representation of the People Act, 1951 bars associations with religious connotations to register as political parties.
2. Election Commission of India (ECI) has the power to deregister political parties.
3. Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968 bars political parties from having symbols with religious or communal connotations.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
The Election Commission recently told the Supreme Court that “there is no express provision which bars associations with religious connotations to register as political parties under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act-1951”.
The EC does not have the power to deregister political parties, something which it has proposed as an electoral reform to the government many times.
On the issue of symbols, the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968 bars parties from having symbols with religious or communal connotations.
Which one of the following edicts mentions the personal name of Ashoka?
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Maski in Raichur district of the state of Karnataka, India. It was the first edict of Emperor Ashoka that contained the name of Ashoka instead of earlier edicts that referred him as Devanampiya Priyadarsi. So, Option D is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding Monkeypox.
1. Monkeypox is a rare viral infection similar to smallpox.
2. Monkeypox is a zoonosis, that means, the disease is transmitted from infected animals to humans.
3. Human-to-human transmission is limited. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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Monkeypox is a rare viral infection similar to smallpox.
The monkeypox virus is an orthopoxvirus, which is a genus of viruses that also includes the variola virus, which causes smallpox, and the vaccinia virus, which was used in the smallpox vaccine. Monkeypox causes symptoms similar to smallpox, although they are less severe.
Monkeypox is a zoonosis, that is, a disease that is transmitted from infected animals to humans.
Human-to-human transmission is limited. Transmission, when it occurs, can be through contact with bodily fluids, lesions on the skin or internal mucosal surfaces, such as in the mouth or throat, respiratory droplets and contaminated objects, the WHO says.
In the Mahayana Buddhism, the bodhisattva Avalokitesver was also known as
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It is generally agreed among Chinese Buddhists and scholars of Buddhist studies that the Chinese figure Guanyin is the same as the figure known in India as Bodhisattva Avalokitesvara. Buddhism began in India and spread to China over the trade routes known as the Silk Roads. Avalokitesvara is the bodhisattva who represents compassion. The Lotus Sutra, one of the most important texts in Mahayana Buddhism, describes Avalokitesvara extensively.
Bodhisattvas were imagined as compassionate beings entirely concerned with the welfare of fellow beings. Worshippers could pray to them to ease their troubles and help them with their worldly cares. As per Theravada, Buddha referred to himself as a Bodhisattva during all his incarnations. He proclaimed himself as Buddha only after he had attained complete enlightenment. The Mahayana school of Buddhism defines Bodhisattva as “any being who intends to achieve enlightenment and Buddhahood”.
Consider the following statements regarding Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act, 1971.
1. The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971 has not been amended since inception.
2. The MTP Act recognises abortion as a choice of the women.
3. It makes ‘medical termination of pregnancy’ legal in India under specific conditions.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
The MTP Act, first enacted in 1971 and then amended in 2021, certainly makes ‘medical termination of pregnancy’ legal in India under specific conditions. However, this Act is framed from a legal standpoint to primarily protect medical practitioners because under the Indian Penal Code, “induced miscarriage” is a criminal offence. This premise points to a lack of choice and bodily autonomy of women and rests the decision of abortion solely on the doctor’s opinion. The MTP Act also only mentions ‘pregnant woman’, thus failing to recognise that transgender persons and others who do not identify as women can become pregnant.
The MTP Act does not recognise abortion as a choice, they need the approval of medical professionals even in the first few weeks of the pregnancy.
Which of the following country provides assistance to other countries for socio-economic development projects under High Impact Community Development Project (HICDP) scheme?
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In a bid to strengthen ties, India and Maldives signed pacts on development projects. The pact included grant assistance of 100 million Rufiyaa [currency of Maldives] for the High Impact Community Development Project (HICDP) scheme. A number of socio-economic development projects are planned to be implemented throughout the country under this funding.
Consider the following statements about the REDD+ programme
1. It is a climate change mitigation solution being developed by parties to the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change.
2. UN-REDD programme provides financial assistance under Green Climate Funds to meet REDD+ requirements of developing countries.
3. Recently, Rwanda became the first African country to submit results for REDD+ to UNFCCC. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
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REDD+ aims to achieve climate change mitigation by incentivizing forest conservation. It is a mechanism developed by Parties to the United National Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) in 2005. So, statement 1 is correct.
The Green Climate Fund (GCF) established at the Conference of Parties (COP) to function as the financial mechanism for the UNFCCC, is currently financing REDD+ programs. So, statement 2 is correct.
Recently, Uganda has become the first African Country to submit results for REDD+ to UNFCCC. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Consider the following statements regarding Artemis Mission.
1. The Artemis program is a robotic and human Moon exploration program led by European Space Agency (ESA).
2. The Artemis program intends to re-establish a human presence on the Moon for the first time since the Apollo 17 mission.
3. The Artemis program is a collaboration of government space agencies and private spaceflight companies, bound together by the Artemis Accords.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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The Artemis program is a robotic and human Moon exploration program led by the United States’ National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) along with three partner agencies: European Space Agency (ESA), Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA), and Canadian Space Agency (CSA). The Artemis program intends to reestablish a human presence on the Moon for the first time since the Apollo 17 mission in 1972. The program’s long-term goal is to establish a permanent base camp on the Moon and facilitate human missions to Mars. The Artemis program is a collaboration of government space agencies and private spaceflight companies, bound together by the Artemis Accords and supporting contracts.
The Satnami Movement in Central India was organised to
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The Satnami Movement in Central India was founded by Guru Ghasidas. He worked among the leather workers and organised a movement to improve their social status.
Biodiversity Heritage Sites in India are protected under
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The concept of Biodiversity Heritage Sites (BHS), conceived under Section 37 of India’s Biological Diversity Act, 2002, was one of the most imaginative steps taken to protect these vanishing biodiversity-rich regions.
Consider the following statement:
‘He was a key figure in Bengal renaissance. He considered lack of education among the women is the cause for all their problems. Hence, he championed for the issues such as widow remarriage, polygamy, girl child education. He was against child marriage. With the help of British man Bethune, he setup many schools especially to girls. He arranged many remarriage for the widows. Even his son married a widow.’
Which personality is described above?
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Vidyasagar started a movement in support of widow remarriage which resulted in legalisation of widow remarriage. He was also a crusader against child marriage and polygamy. He did much for the cause of women’s education. Pandit Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar was associated with no less than 35 girls’ schools in Bengal and is considered one of the pioneers of women’s education.
The FRBM Act contain an ‘escape clause’ under which Centre can exceed the annual fiscal deficit target on which of the following grounds?
1. Collapse of agriculture
2. National security
3. Structural reforms
4. Decline in real output growth of a quarter by at least three percentage points below the average of the previous four quarters.
Select the correct answer code:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
How does a relaxation of the FRBM work?
The law does contain what is commonly referred to as an ‘escape clause’. Under Section 4(2) of the Act, the Centre can exceed the annual fiscal deficit target citing grounds that include national security, war, national calamity, collapse of agriculture, structural reforms and decline in real output growth of a quarter by at least three percentage points below the average of the previous four quarters.
What do you understand by the term ‘Social Forestry’?
1. Reducing the pressure on the traditional forest area by encouraging plantations on community land.
2. Promoting commercial harvesting of timber and non-timber products from traditional forests by community to meet local demands.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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The National Commission on Agriculture, Government of India, first used the term ‘social forestry’ in 1976. It aims at raising plantations by the common man so as to meet the growing demand for food, fuel wood, fodder, fiber and fertilizer (5 F’s) etc, thereby reducing the pressure on the traditional forest area.
It does not aim at the displacement or exploitation of traditional forests, but supplementing them with community grown forests. It does not aim at promoting commercial harvesting either.
Which of the following places has the world’s highest concentration of Indian one-horned rhinos?
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Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary
Consider the following statements about Nibbana in Buddhism.
1. Buddhism asserted that the nibbana was possible for women.
2. Nibbana can be attained only with the help of God.
3. Nibbana means complete dying out of desire and it is achieved after death.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Buddhism asserted the right for Nibbana to women as the social and institutional patriarchy did not exclude women from realizing nibbana. So, statement 1 is correct.
Nibbana, as per Buddhism, can be attained only through the path shown by the enlightened teacher or Buddha and gods have no role in it. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Parinibbana is the term associated with death while Nibbana means dying out of desire or extinction of desire within oneself. Nibbana could be achieved while being alive. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Consider the following statements regarding Red Sanders.
1. Red Sanders or red sandalwood, is an endemic tree species with distribution restricted to the Eastern Ghats of India.
2. Under the foreign trade policy of India, the import and export of Red Sanders is prohibited.
3. It is listed under Schedule IV of The Wildlife Protection Act and Endangered as per IUCN Red List. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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TRAFFIC, a global wildlife trade monitoring organisation has revealed. CITES (the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora) is an international agreement between governments, whose aim is to ensure that international trade in specimen of wild animals and plants, does not threaten the survival of the species.
Red Sanders Pterocarpus santalinus, or red sandalwood, is an endemic tree species with distribution restricted to the Eastern Ghats of India.
Under the foreign trade policy of India, the import of Red Sanders is prohibited, while export is restricted. Listed under Schedule IV of The Wildlife Protection Act and Endangered as per IUCN Red List, Red Sanders is a very slow-growing tree species that attains maturity in natural forests after 25-40 years.
Consider the following statements about Menander.
1. He is also known by the name of Milinda and he had his capital at Sakala.
2. He was converted to Buddhism by Nagasena.
3. The question asked by Milinda and Nagasena’s answers were recorded in the form of a book known as ‘Nagaseni’.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Menander or colloquially known as Milinda was a great Indo greek ruler (165-145 BC) who had his capital at Sakala (modern-day Sialkot, Punjab). So, statement 1 is correct.
Meander was famous for his philosophical debate with Buddhist saint Nagasena. The question asked by Milinda and Nagasena’s answer, which made him convert to Buddhism, was recorded in the form of a book known as Milindapanho, written by Nagasena. So, statement 2 is correct and statement 3 is not correct.
Which of the following is the competent authority to change the name of any State of India?
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Parliament under Article 3 can increase or diminish the area of any State or alter the boundaries or change the name of any State.
With respect to the Sanyasi Revolt, consider the following statements:
1. It was led by religious monks in Bengal.
2. It was supported by demobilized soldiers and zamindars.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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The Sanyasi revolt (1763-1800) was a late-eighteenth-century rebellion in Bengal, India, in the Murshidabad and Baikunthpur forests of Jalpaiguri under the leadership of Pandit Bhabani Charan Pathak. A group of sanyasis in Eastern India were forced to oppose the British yoke after the devastating famine of 1770 and the British's strict economic regime.
Following the British acquisition of revenue rights in Bengal, many zamindars faced financial hardship as a result of the high tax rates. Many tax demands grew once the East India Company gained the diwani, or right to collect tax, and local landlords and headmen were unable to pay both the ascetics and the English.
Crop failures and famine, which killed 10 million people, or roughly one-third of Bengal's population, exacerbated the situation, since most of the arable land remained fallow.
Many Sanyasi sects travelled from northern India to Bengal to visit various holy sites and shrines. During their religious travels, the Sanyasis would collect alms and contributions from these zamindars. This was ended when the zamindars found it too difficult to distribute charity after paying the British their dues, as they were left with very little. The British believed the Sanyasis to be looters and placed limits on their ability to access sacred sites. The Sanyasis rose out against the British and looted English factories and government coffers in the revolt.
Consider the following statements regarding the distribution of Wetlands in India.
1. According to National Wetland Inventory and Assessment compiled by ISRO, wetlands are spread over more than 10 percent of the total geographical area of India.
2. In state-wise distribution of wetlands, West Bengal is at the top position.
3. Inland-natural wetlands account for maximum share compared to coastal-natural wetlands. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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Globally, wetlands cover 6.4 per cent of the geographical area of the world. In India, according to the National Wetland Inventory and Assessment compiled by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), wetlands are spread over 1,52,600 square kilometres (sq km) which is 4.63 per cent of the total geographical area of the country. Of the 1,52,600 sq km, inland-natural wetlands account for 43.4% and coastal-natural wetlands 24.3%.
Rivers/streams occupy 52,600 sq km, reservoirs/barrages 24,800 sq km, inter-tidal mudflats 24,100 sq km, tanks/ponds 13,100 sq km and lake/ponds 7300 sq km.
India has 19 types of wetlands. In state-wise distribution of wetlands, Gujarat is at the top with 34,700 sq km (17.56% of total geographical area of the state), or 22.7% of total wetlands areas of the country thanks to a long coastline. It is followed by Andhra Pradesh (14,500 sq km), Uttar Pradesh (12,400 sq km) and West Bengal (11,100 sq km).
Consider the following statements regarding Fixed Capital Formation.
1. Fixed capital includes construction of dwellings, which may not add to the productive capacity of the economy.
2. Fixed capital formation is directly related with economic growth rate.
3. Long term growth will be achieved if resources from Fixed Capital are diverted towards consumption.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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-Fixed capital is assets used in the productive process. Examples of Fixed Capital Formation include – Building or expanding existing factory, Road and bridge construction, Purchase of transport equipment, Office equipment, such as computers, printers, Machinery used in the productive process, Energy infrastructure etc.
-Generally, the higher the capital formation of an economy, the faster an economy can grow its aggregate income. Increasing an economy’s capital stock also increases its capacity for production, which means an economy can produce more. Producing more goods and services can lead to an increase in national income levels.
-Fixed capital formation (growth of productive infrastructure etc.) is directly related with economic growth rate.
-Only short-term growth may be achieved if resources from Fixed Capital are diverted towards consumption. In the long-term quality and quantity of infrastructure is a major determinant of economic growth.
-Dwellings (a house, flat, or other place of residence) are not directly utilised by businesses and the government to produce output. Since dwellings do not add to the productive capacity of the economy directly. However, they are considered as Fixed Capital.
Which among the following is not correct regarding the Satavahana kingdom?
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Satavahana kingdom, majorly Gautamiputra Satakarni, contributed to the Aryanisation of South India. They started the practice of giving land grants to Brahmins and some Buddhists. The land grants given to Brahmins were more in number which later leads to their superiority in the society. So, option C is not correct.
Har Ghar Gangajal project that aims to provide Ganga water on tap in the parched areas of the state, was launched by which state?
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Bihar Chief Minister recently launched the Har Ghar Gangajal project in Rajgir. It is a unique and ambitious initiative to provide Ganga water on tap in the parched areas of the state.
The scheme will help to harvest the excess water of the Ganga during the monsoon season. The water will be stored in reservoirs in Rajgir and Gaya before being channelled to three treatment-and-purification plants, from where it will be supplied to the public. Har Ghar Gangajal is part of the Bihar government’s Jal Jeevan Hariyali scheme.
Consider the following statements.
1. In India, the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare has declared millets as “Nutri Cereals”.
2. Generally, Millets have high amount of proteins compared to carbohydrates and dietary fibre.
3. The year 2022 was the International Year of Millets, adopted by United Nations General Assembly (UNGA).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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Millets are considered to be “powerhouses of nutrition”. On April 10, 2018, the Agriculture Ministry declared millets as “Nutri Cereals”.
The Story of Millets published by the Karnataka State Department of Agriculture in association with ICAR- Indian Institute of Millets Research, Hyderabad, says, “Millets contain 7-12% protein, 2-5% fat, 65-75% carbohydrates and 15-20% dietary fibre".
On March 3, 2021, the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) adopted a resolution to declare 2023 as the International Year of Millets. The proposal was moved by India, and was supported by 72 countries.
Consider the following statements:
1. He was a Parsi social reformer.
2. He founded the Seva Sadan as a social reform and humanitarian organization in 1908, especially for destitute women.
Identify the person described above:
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A Parsi social reformer, Behramji M. Malabari (1853- 1912), founded the Seva Sadan in 1908 along with a friend, Diwan Dayaram Gidumal. Malabari spoke vigorously against child marriage and for widow remarriage among Hindus. It was his efforts that led to the Age of Consent Act regulating the age of consent for females, Seva Sadan specialised in taking care of those women who were exploited and then discarded by society. It catered to all castes and provided the destitute women with education, and medical and welfare services.
Consider the following statements.
1. Recently the monkeypox has spread mainly in the United States and Europe, primarily among men who have sex with men (MSM).
2. Monkeypox was named because the virus that causes the disease was first discovered in captive monkeys.
3. Assigning names to new and existing diseases is the responsibility of World Health Organisation (WHO) under the International Classification of Diseases (ICD).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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The World Health Organisation (WHO) announced that it would start using the term “mpox” for monkeypox, which has infected about 80,000 people in the first major outbreak of the viral disease outside Africa that began early this summer. The disease spread mainly in the Americas including the United States and Europe, primarily among men who have sex with men (MSM).
Monkeypox, which was named in 1970 because the virus that causes the disease was first discovered in captive monkeys in 1958, does not have much to do with monkeys. The most likely reservoir for the virus, which has circulated for several years in a few central African countries after jumping to humans through zoonosis in the bush, are rodents.
The WHO said that assigning names to new and, in some cases, existing diseases is the responsibility of the global body under the International Classification of Diseases (ICD) and the WHO Family of International Health Related Classifications through a consultative process which includes WHO Member States. In the case of monkeypox, the process was accelerated.
According to WHO best practices, “new disease names should be given with the aim to minimize unnecessary negative impact of names on trade, travel, tourism or animal welfare, and avoid causing offence to any cultural, social, national, regional, professional or ethnic groups”.
Consider the following facts about a pioneer social reformer:
1. He is widely considered to be the first journalist and editor in Marathi Language.
2. He started a weekly Bombay Darpan in 1832 and Digdarshan in 1840.
3. His many works include the books in history and math for children.
Identify the personality:
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Balshastri Jambhekar (1812-1846) was a pioneer of social reform through journalism in Bombay; he attacked brahminical orthodoxy and tried to reform popular Hinduism. He started the newspaper Darpan in 1832. Known as the father of Marathi journalism, Jambhekar used the Darpan to awaken the people to awareness of social reforms, such as widow remarriage, and to instil in the masses a scientific approach to life. In 1840, he started Digdarshan which published articles on scientific subjects as well as history.
Consider the following statements regarding In-camera proceedings and pick correct statements.
1. In-camera proceedings are conducted as per the court’s discretion in sensitive matters to ensure protection and privacy of the parties involved.
2. In the In-camera proceedings, the press is allowed to report on the matter being heard.
3. Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) has detailed the types of cases that should be recorded on camera.
Answer Given: SKIPPED
In-camera proceedings are private, unlike open court proceedings. Conducted as per the court’s discretion in sensitive matters to ensure protection and privacy of the parties involved, the proceedings are usually held through video conferencing or in closed chambers, from which the public and press are excluded.
In an open court or open justice system, which is the usual course of proceedings, the press is allowed to report on the matter being heard.
Section 327 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) has detailed the types of cases that should be recorded on camera, including inquiry into and trial in rape case.
The said section states that if the presiding judge or a magistrate thinks fit, she can order at any stage of the proceedings that the public generally, or any particular person, shall not remain present in the courtroom or the court building.
Section 327 of the CrPC states that it shall not be lawful to publish any matter in relation to in-camera proceedings except with the previous permission of the court. It adds that the ban on publishing of trial proceedings for offence of rape may be lifted subject to maintaining confidentiality of name and address of the parties.
In-camera proceedings are usually conducted at family courts in cases of matrimonial disputes, including judicial separation, divorce proceedings, impotence, and more. In-camera proceedings are also conducted during the deposition of witnesses of terrorist activities as per the court’s discretion, so as to protect them and maintain national security.
Which one of the following was the main objective for setting up of Asiatic Society of Bengal in 1784?
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Asiatic Society was founded in 1784 by William Jones. The main objective is to promote the study of Indian languages and scriptures and considered as a centre for Asian studies.