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Tigray Region sometimes seen in news is the disputed region in:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation: Ethiopia, Africa’s second-most populous country with about 115 million people, was already grappling with daunting economic and social challenges well before a feud between Mr. Abiy and the T.P.L.F. erupted into violence. The war has deepened ethnic tensions and created an immense humanitarian and political crisis that involves neighboring countries and could destabilize the entire Horn of Africa.
With reference to the Green-Ag project, which was recently launched, consider the following statements:
1. The project aims to reduce emissions from agriculture and ensure sustainable agricultural practices
2. Ministry of environment, forests and climate change is the national executing agency of the project
3. The World Bank is the funding agency for the project.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation: The Green-Ag project is designed to achieve multiple global environmental benefits in at least 1.8 million hectares (ha) of land in five landscapes, with mixed land-use systems.
It aims to bring at least 104,070 ha of farms under sustainable land and water management.
The project will also ensure 49 million Carbon dioxide equivalent (CO2eq) sequestered or reduced through sustainable land use and agricultural practices.
The executing agency for the project is the department of agriculture, cooperation, and farmers’ welfare under ministry of agriculture and farmers’ welfare.
Also, the Global Environment Facility is the funding agency for the project.
• Hence, only statement 1 is correct.
With reference to the Open Network for Digital Commerce, consider the following statements:
1. The Open Network for Digital Commerce aims at promoting open networks developed on open-sourced methodology, using open specifications and open network protocols, independent on any specific platform.
2. This is in the direction of making e-commerce processes open source, thus creating a platform that can be utilized by all online retailers.
3. The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) has issued orders appointing an advisory committee for its Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) project that is aimed at curbing “digital monopolies”.
Select the correct statements from above using the codes given below:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
• The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) has issued orders appointing an advisory committee for its Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) project that is aimed at curbing “digital monopolies”. This is in the direction of making e-commerce processes open source, thus creating a platform that can be utilized by all online retailers.
• Earlier, the Ministry of Consumer Affairs released draft e-commerce rules for consumer protection which seek to bring changes to how e-commerce marketplaces, including Amazon and Flipkart, operate after small businesses complained that they misuse market dominance and deep discounting to gain an unfair advantage.
• The ONDC aims at promoting open networks developed on open-sourced methodology, using open specifications and open network protocols, independent on any specific platform. The project to integrate e-commerce platforms through a network based on open-source technology has been tasked to the Quality Council of India to the same level
Implementation of ONDC, which is expected to be on the lines of Unified Payments Interface (UPI) could bring various operational aspects put in place by e-commerce platforms Various operational aspects include onboarding of sellers, vendor discovery, price discovery and product cataloguing etc. On ONDC, buyers and sellers may transact irrespective of the fact that they are attached to one specific e-commerce portal.
Hence, all the statements are correct.
Which among the following were not original provisions of Indian Constitution and introduced through amendments?
1. Independent and Autonomous bodies
2. Tribunals
3. Federal system of government
4. Three tier government
Select the correct code:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation: Tribunals were added in the Constitution by Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) Act, 1976 as Part XIV-A, which has only two articles viz. 323-A and 323-B. While article 323-A deals with Administrative Tribunals; article 323-B deals with tribunals for other matters.Through 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments local self-governance was introduced in rural and urban India. The Acts came into force as the Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, 1992 on April 24, 1993 and the Constitution (74th Amendment) Act, 1992 on June 1, 1993.
Hence 2 and 4 only are correct.
Consider the following statements with regard to the Contingency Fund of India:
1. The Contingency Fund of India is established under Article 267(1) of the Indian Constitution for unforeseen expenditure and emergency purposes.
2. The fund is held by the Finance Secretary (Department of Economic Affairs) on behalf of the President of India.
3. Its corpus is Rs. 500 crores and prior approval of parliament is required for expenditure from this fund.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Contingency Fund of India is established under Article 267(1) of the Indian Constitution. It is in the nature of an interest (money maintained for a specific purpose). Accordingly, Parliament enacted the contingency fund of India Act 1950. The Contingency Fund of India exists for disasters and related unforeseen expenditures. Statement 2 is correct: The fund is held by the Finance Secretary (Department of Economic Affairs) on behalf of the President of India and it can be operated by executive action.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Contingency Fund of India is to be augmented from Rs. 500 crore to Rs. 30,000 crore through Finance Bill 2021. Approval of the Parliament of India for such expenditure is obtained after the expenditure has been incurred. Also, withdrawal of an equivalent amount from the Consolidated Fund is subsequently obtained to ensure that the corpus of the Contingency Fund remains intact.
Consider the following statements
1. Deputy Speaker is appointed by the president from the members of Lok Sabha.
2. Deputy Speaker presides over the joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament, in case the Speaker is absent from such a sitting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation: Like the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker is also elected by the Lok Sabha itself from amongst its members.
He is elected after the election of the Speaker has taken place. The date of election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the Speaker.
The Deputy Speaker is not subordinate to the Speaker. He is directly responsible to the House.
The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker, while assuming their offices, do not make and subscribe any separate oath or affirmation.
Hence, only statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following statements.
1. Family Planning Logistics Management Information System is a dedicated software to ensure procurement and distribution of family planning commodities across all the levels of health facilities.
2. Mission Parivar Vikas aims to accelerate access to high-quality family planning choices and to successfully increase the modern Contraceptive Prevalence Rate (mCPR).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Family Planning Logistics Management Information System — a dedicated software to ensure the smooth forecasting, procurement and distribution of family planning commodities across all the levels of health facilities.
Mission Parivar Vikas aims to accelerate access to high-quality family planning choices, to successfully increase the modern Contraceptive Prevalence Rate (mCPR), especially among female non-users from vulnerable communities.
Consider the following statements about the “Statutory Liquidity Ratio” (SLR):
1. It is a proportion of Net Demand and Time Liabilities that banks have to maintain in the form of Securities, Gold, etc.
2. The RBI can penalize the banks for failing to maintain the mandated SLR.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Banks have to maintain a stipulated proportion of their net demand and time liabilities in the form of liquid assets like cash, gold and unencumbered securities. This is called Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR). Treasury bills, dated securities issued under market borrowing programme and market stabilisation schemes (MSS), etc also form part of the SLR. So, statement 1 is correct. Banks have to report to the RBI every alternate Friday their SLR maintenance, and pay penalties for failing to maintain SLR as mandated.
So, statement 2 is correct.
With reference to Indian economy, which of the following best describes Exit policy
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Exit policy means the policy regarding the retrenchment of the surplus labour force resulting from restructuring of industrial units and workers displaced by the closure of sick units. Exit may become necessary due to strategic reasons, financial constraints and environmental changes.
Which of the following is/are feature(s) of “public goods”?
1. The benefits of public goods are not limited to one particular consumer.
2. The consumption of public goods by several individuals creates competition among consumers.
3. There is no feasible way of excluding people from enjoying public goods.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Public goods are commodities or services that benefit all members of society, and which are often provided for free through public taxation. Hence, they are not limited to one particular consumer. So, statement 1 is correct.
A public good has two key characteristics: it is nonexcludable and non-rivalrous. Nonexcludable means that it is costly or impossible for one user to exclude others from using a good. So, statement 3 is correct.
Nonrivalrous means that when one person uses a good, it does not prevent others from using it. Hence, it does not create competition among consumers.
So, statement 2 is not correct.
Which of the following cases of the Supreme Court of India are related to Surveillance?
1. S. Puttaswamy vs Union of India verdict of 2017
2. People’s Union for Civil Liberties (PUCL) vs Union of India case
3. Indra Sawhney and Others vs. Union of India & Others
Select the correct answer code:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Judgements related to Surveillance:
1. People’s Union for Civil Liberties (PUCL) vs Union of India case: Supreme Court said telephonic conversations are covered by the right to privacy, which can be breached only if there are established procedures.
2. Puttaswamy vs Union of India verdict of 2017: the Supreme Court reiterated the need for oversight of surveillance, stating that it should be legally valid and serve a legitimate aim of the government. In the same case the Supreme Court declared that "Right to Privacy" is a Fundamental Rights under Article 21.
Indra Sawhney and Others vs. Union of India & Others:
The constitution recognized social and educational backwardness, but not economic backwardness. The court upheld separate reservation for OBC in central government jobs but excluded the “creamy layer” (the forward section of a backward class, above a certain income).
Consider the following statements:
1. Both the Central and the State governments have the power to fix the price of sugarcane in India.
2. Fair and remunerative price is the minimum price at which rate sugarcane is to be purchased by the government from farmers.
3. The price of sugar is market-determined in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Fair and remunerative price is the price fixed at which mill owners need to purchase sugarcane from the farmers.
So, statement 2 is not correct.
Which of these African states border the Mediterranean Sea?
1. Egypt
2. Chad
3. Tunisia
4. Niger
Select the correct answer code:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
1. Egypt
3. Tunisia
The Government of India can effectively tackle the situation of deflation in the economy by
1. Increasing the direct tax rate
2. Decreasing the direct tax rate
3. Reducing the repo rate
4. Increasing the repo rate
5. Increasing the government spending
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Increasing the direct tax rate would decrease the disposable income available in the economy thereby reducing demand. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Increasing the demand requires more money supply with the people which is available from easier credit from the banks. Repo rate increase would reduce the credit presence, thereby increasing deflation.
So, statement 4 is not correct.
Invisible account of the balance of payments comprises of
1. Expenditure by foreign tourists in India
2. Remittances by overseas Indians
3. Receipts from export of software services
Select the correct answer code:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Invisibles mainly comprise receipts from export of software services, remittances by overseas Indians, and tourism.
Which of the following are the most likely impacts of a very high fiscal deficit on the Indian economy?
1. Increase in borrowings by the government
2. Crowding in effect for private sector
3. High inflation
4. Decrease in credit ratings in the international market
5. Depreciation of Indian rupees
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Answer Given: SKIPPED
High fiscal deficit would eventually mean still more borrowing by the government to meet the present deficit so as to manage present fiscal crisis. So, statement 1 is correct.
Crowding out occurs in private sector as due to extensive borrowing by the government phases out avenues of private borrowings as sources of borrowings banks, bonds etc. are already captured by government. So, statement 2 is not correct.
High fiscal deficit leads to more borrowing of the government and often government resorts to printing of money or external borrowings which lead to inflation. So, statement 3 is correct.
Credit ratings of the country in international market decreases because very high fiscal deficit is considered to be unsustainable and harmful to overall economy, e.g. Pakistan. In High inflationary regimes import becomes expensive that leads to depreciation of domestic currency value in international foreign exchange market.
Bond yield is the return an investor gets on that bond or on a particular government security. Which of the following factors affect the bond yield in India?
1. Monetary policy of the Reserve Bank of India
2. Fiscal position of the government
3. Global markets
4. Inflation in the economy
Select the correct answer code:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Bond yield is the return an investor gets on that bond or on a particular government security. The major factors affecting the yield is the monetary policy of the Reserve Bank of India, especially the course of interest rates, the fiscal position of the government and its borrowing programme, global markets, economy, and inflation.
In the context of Public Finance in India, consider the following statements about the “Equalization Levy”:
1. It is an indirect tax, which is paid at the time of payment by the service recipient.
2. The tax applies to e-commerce transactions on websites also.
3. It covers the transactions between non-resident Indians also.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Equalization Levy is a direct tax, which is withheld at the time of payment by the service recipient. So, Statement 1 is not correct. Indian Finance Bill 2020 passed in the Parliament extended the scope of equalisation levy to cover “e-commerce supply or services” (including facilitation) w.e.f. April 1, 2020. So, Statement 2 is correct.
The provisions seek to cover non-resident to non-resident transactions which use Indian data. So, Statement 3 is correct.
Match the following volcanoes and their location.
Volcano Location
A. Krakatoa 1. USA
B. Mount Vesuvius 2. Japan
C. Mount Fuji 3. Italy
D. Mount St Helens 4. Indonesia
Select the correct answer code:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Here are some famous volcanoes in the world.
Krakatoa, Indonesia: One of the most catastrophic volcanic eruptions ever occurred in Krakatoa in 1883.
Mount Vesuvius, Italy: In 79 CE, Mount Vesuvius erupted (VEI 5), in one of the deadliest eruptions in European history, killing as many as 16,000 and destroying the town of Pompeii.
Mount Fuji, Japan Kilauea, Hawaii: Adjacent to the Mauna Loa, this is one of the most active volcanoes on the planet. Mount St Helens,
USA: Located in Washington State, Mount St. Helens was a major eruption that occurred on May 18, 1980 (VEI 5), and it remains the deadliest and most economically destructive volcanic event in U.S. history.
Which of the following are the quantitative methods to control credit used by the Reserve Bank of India?
1. Cash Reserve Ratio
2. Liquidity Adjustment Facility
3. Variable Portfolio Ceiling
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Variable ceiling portfolio is fixing different ceiling limits for different portfolio or sectoral loans. As this credit control methods differentiates between various sectors, it falls under qualitative mechanism.
So, statement 3 is not correct.
Consider the following statements.
1. Geothermal gradient is the rate of temperature change with respect to increasing depth in Earth’s interior.
2. Magma is lighter than solid rock and hence it rises.
3. Usually Magma that is thick and sticky leads to explosive volcanic eruptions, compared to magmathat has low viscosity.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
The geothermal gradient, the amount that the Earth’s temperature increases with depth, indicates heat? owing from the Earth’s warm interior to its surface. At a certain depth, the heat is such that it melts rocks and creates what geologists call ‘magma’.
Magma is lighter than solid rock and hence it rises, collecting in magma chambers. Chambers which have the potential to cause volcanic eruptions are found at a relatively shallow depth. The magma that surfaces on the Earth’s crust is referred to as lava. Why are some volcanic eruptions explosive and some not? In simple terms, runny magma makes for less explosive volcanic eruptions that typically are less dangerous. Since the magma is runny, gasses are able to escape, leading to a steady but relatively gentle flow of lava out of the mouth of the volcano. The eruption at Mauna Loa is of this kind. Since the lava flows out at a slow pace, people typically have enough time to move out of the way. If magma is thick and sticky, it makes it harder for gasses to escape on a consistent basis. This leads to a build-up of pressure until a breaking point is reached. At this time, the gasses escape violently, all at once, causing an explosion. Mount Vesuvius, which obliterated the city of Pompeii, is an example of an explosive volcano. The Volcanic Explosivity Index (VEI) is a scale used to measure the explosivity of a volcano. It has a range of 1 to 8 with a higher VEI indicating more explosivity.
The term “Golden Handshake” is related to which one of the following?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
A golden handshake is a stipulation in an employment agreement which states that the employer will provide a significant severance package if the employee loses their job. It is usually provided to top executives in the event that they lose employment because of retirement, layoffs or for negligence. However, payment can be made in several ways, such as cash or stock options.
So, option (b) is correct.
Consider the following statements.
1. Article 3 of the Constitution gives the Supreme Court of India jurisdiction to decide on the boundaries of states.
2. The State Reorganisation Act that was passed in 1956, was based on the findings of the Justice Fazal Ali Commission.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Recently, the state of Karnataka has rightly cited Article 3 of the Constitution to argue that the Supreme Court does not have the jurisdiction to decide the borders of states, and only Parliament has the power to do so. The State Reorganisation Act was passed by the Parliament in 1956. The Act was based on the findings of the Justice Fazal Ali Commission, which was appointed in 1953 and submitted its report two years later.
Consider the following statements:
1. Inflation is undesirable for the economy.
2. Disinflation is the reduction in the rate of inflation.
3. Stagflation makes the application of monetary policy ineffective.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Moderate Inflation is good as it is created by excessive demand in the economy thereby fuelling production and increased output with need for labor. Management of inflation is necessary to ward off the ill effects of any possible extreme future inflation. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Disinflation is the reduction in the rate of inflation. However, it is not deflation that indicates decreasing prices of commodities.
Stagflation combines slow growth, relatively high unemployment, and rising prices (inflation). What makes it particularly problematic is that the standard macroeconomic tools used to combat either inflation or unemployment are ineffective against stagflation.
Why Stagflation is difficult to tackle?
Recession and Inflation: During a recession, governments typically employ expansionary monetary and fiscal policies. They inject more money into the economy, which leads to lower loan rates and encourages spending. However, when faced with inflation, the opposite approach is taken. The government restricts the money supply, making borrowing more expensive and slowing down overall economic activity. This helps control inflation by reducing demand and prices. These two responses—expansionary policies for recession and contractionary policies for inflation—are diametrically opposed. In stagflation neither policy works as stagflation involves inflation and usual contractionary policy that is restriction of money supply would lead more unemployment and further stagnation of economy.
The Phillips Curve: The concept of stagflation was once thought impossible. However, economist A.W. Phillips discovered an inverse relationship between unemployment and inflation. He observed that periods of low unemployment led to higher labor costs, which were then passed on to consumers. Conversely, during recessions, wage inflation slowed down due to increased competition for jobs. This inverse relationship was represented by the Phillips Curve. Unfortunately, stagflation challenges this model because it combines both high unemployment and rising prices.
Consider the following statements regarding the recently launched e-Rupee.
1. e-Rupee is an electronic version of cash, and will be primarily meant for retail transactions.
2. It can be exchanged one-to-one with the fiat currency.
3. Users will be able to transact with e-Rupee through a digital wallet offered by the participating bank and store it on mobile phones and devices.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
India launched its e-Rupee on Thursday (December 1). The Reserve Bank of India’s Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) is an electronic version of cash, and will be primarily meant for retail transactions. The pilot will initially cover the four cities of Mumbai, New Delhi, Bengaluru, and Bhubaneswar. Four banks will be involved in the controlled launch of the digital currency in these four cities: State Bank of India, ICICI Bank, Yes Bank, and IDFC First Bank.
Arrange the following in the increasing order of their liquidity:
1. Cash in hand
2. Gold
3. Demand deposits
4. Land
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Order of liquidity is the order of the amount of time taken to convert the asset type into cash. Thus, Cash and demand deposits usually retain the highest form of liquidity followed by marketable securities, accounts receivable, inventory and then fixed assets. So, option c is correct.
Consider the following statements.
1. Phytoremediation is a remediation method that uses living organisms like plants, microalgae, and seaweeds to reduce the concentrations or toxic effects of contaminants in the environment.
2. Metals like cadmium, cobalt, nickel, lead and organic pollutants can be easily removed from the soil through Phytoremediation.
3. Hyperaccumulator plants slows down the process of Phytoremediation.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
“Phytoremediation”, a remediation method that uses living organisms like plants, microalgae, and seaweeds. One particular way to remove toxic heavy metals from the soil includes the use of “hyperaccumulator” plants that absorb these substances from the soil. Phytoremediation refers to the usage of “hyperaccumulator” plants to absorb the toxic materials present in the soil and accumulate in their living tissue. Even though most plants do sometimes accumulate toxic substances, hyperaccumulators have the unusual ability to absorb hundreds or thousands of times greater amounts of these substances than is normal for most plants.This process can be used to remove metals like silver, cadmium, cobalt, chromium, copper, mercury, manganese, molybdenum, nickel, lead and zinc; metalloids such as arsenic and selenium; some radionuclides; and non-metallic components such as boron. But it cannot be used to remove organic pollutants from the ground due to metabolic breakdown.
Consider the following statements.
1. DigiYatra envisages that travellers pass through various checkpoints at the airport through paperless and contactless processing.
2. DigiYatra works on facial recognition technology.
3. DigiYatra Foundation is a joint-venture company, where Airports Authority of India is a majority shareholder.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
The government has introduced paperless entry at select airports to make air travel hassle-free. Under this initiative, airports will use a facial recognition software called ‘DigiYatra’ for entry.
DigiYatra envisages that travellers pass through various checkpoints at the airport through paperless and contactless processing, using facial features to establish their identity, which would be linked to the boarding pass. With this technology, the entry of passengers would be automatically processed based on the facial recognition system at all checkpoints – including entry into the airport, security check areas, aircraft boarding, etc. Facial recognition technology is beneficial as it makes flying more convenient and reduces congestion at airports.
How is DigiYatra being implemented?
The project is being implemented by the DigiYatra Foundation — a joint-venture company whose shareholders are the Airports Authority of India (26% stake) and Bengaluru Airport, Delhi Airport, Hyderabad Airport, Mumbai Airport and Cochin International Airport. These five shareholders equally hold the remaining 74% of the shares.
The term “Helicopter money” sometimes seen in the news recently, it means
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Helicopter money is the term used for a large sum of new money that is printed and distributed among the public by the central bank to stimulate the economy during a recession or when interest rates fall to zero. It is also referred to as a helicopter drop, in reference to a helicopter scattering supplies from the sky.
So, option (b) is correct
Pick the correct statements regarding UNESCO intangible cultural heritage list.
1. Intangible cultural heritage ascribes importance to the wealth of knowledge and skills that is transmitted through it from one generation to the next.
2. The Convention for the Safeguarding of the intangible cultural heritage (ICH) was adopted by the General Conference of UNESCO for preserving intangible heritage from across the globe.
3. The list officially recognizes the standard of excellence.
Select the correct statements from above using the codes given below:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
UNESCO defines “intangible” as “expressions that have been passed from one generation to another, have evolved in response to their environments and contribute to giving us a sense of identity and continuity…” It ascribes importance to “the wealth of knowledge and skills that is transmitted through it from one generation to the next,” which necessitates their preservation. The document states that the safeguarding of an ICH means ensuring that it “remains an active part of life for today’s generations that they can hand on to tomorrow.” The adoption of the Convention for the Safeguarding of the ICH by the General Conference of UNESCO in 2003 was a crucial step towards preserving intangible heritage from across the globe. UNESCO’s list of Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity was established in the year 2008. The list does not attribute or recognize any standard of excellence or exclusivity.
Consider the following statements:
1. All direct taxes are progressive in nature.
2. All indirect taxes are proportional in nature.
3. Income tax in India is progressive in nature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Corporate tax, a division of income tax on corporate profits is a direct tax which is proportional in nature as fixed taxation would provide stability in their business. So, statement 1 is not correct.
GST on goods and services is an indirect tax which is regressive in nature having same effect on people of different income levels.
So, statement 2 is not correct.
The intangible cultural heritage that can be inscribed into the UN’s list of intangible cultural heritage (ICH) include
1. oral traditions
2. performing arts
3. social practices
4. festive events
5. knowledge and practices concerning nature
Select the correct answer code:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Baguette — the staple French bread — was inscribed into the UN’s list of intangible cultural heritage (ICH). The baguette is a long and thin loaf made of flour, water, salt and yeast, and is consumed as a staple in France. According to an official document by UNESCO, ‘intangible cultural heritage’ includes “oral traditions, performing arts, social practices, rituals, festive events, knowledge and practices concerning nature and the universe or the knowledge and skills to produce traditional crafts.”
Goods and Services Tax collected by the government is included under which of the following heads in the budget of India?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Revenue receipts can be defined as those receipts which neither create any liability nor cause any reduction in the assets of the government. They are regular and recurring in nature and the government receives them in the normal course of activities. Revenue receipts can be of two types — non-tax revenue and tax revenue.Goods and Services Tax (GST) is an example of indirect tax that is collected by sellers/intermediaries from individuals and corporations by selling goods and/or services to them. These Consumers of goods and services bear the burden of the tax, and this amount is passed on to the government by sellers/intermediaries.
So, option (b) is correct.
Consider the following statements.
1. Wheat is considered a ‘living grain’.
2. Wheat tends to gain some weight during storage due to absorption of moisture.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Wheat, considered a ‘living grain’, tends to gain some weight during storage. This is known as ‘storage gain’ and it mostly happens due to absorption of moisture. There are three parts of the grain — bran (outer layer rich in fibre), germ (inner layer rich in nutrients) and endosperm (bulk of the kernel which contains minerals and vitamins). The moisture is mostly absorbed by the endosperm.
Consider the following pairs expressing methods of calculation of National Income:
1. Expenditure method - Aggregate value of all expenditure.
2. Product method - Aggregate value of final goods and services produced.
3. Income method - Sum of all incomes received by all the factors of production.
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
In the Expenditure Method, the National income is calculated as the aggregate of all expenditures incurred by households, firms, government, and foreigners So, Statement 1 is correct.
Product method of calculating the National Income measures the aggregate value of goods and services produced in an economy. So, Statement 2 is correct.
The income method of calculating GDP focuses on the incomes received by all the factors of production, such as labor, capital, entrepreneurship, and land. So, Statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the grouping of G33 Countries.
1. G33 is a coalition of 33 developing countries.
2. India is a member of G33 coalition.
3. It deals with the resolution of the WTO’s mandated issues in agriculture.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
India is a part of the G33, which is a group of 48 developing and least developed countries. The G-33 Joint Ministerial Statement reaffirms commitment for expeditious resolution of the WTO’s mandated issues in agriculture.
Which of the following funds is a part of Public Account of India?
1. Provident fund
2. Interest from loans
3. Small saving schemes
4. National investment fund
5. Surcharge on Income tax
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
All public money received other than those included in the Consolidated fund of India are held in Public Accounts of India. This account mainly consists of money raised through Small saving schemes provident fund schemes, and the national investment funds. It has to be repaid by the government either on maturity date or when claimed by the people. This kind of debt or obligation raised by the government is called other liabilities.
So, option (a) is correct.
Consider the following statements.
1. National Council of Science Museums is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Culture, Government of India.
2. In India all the museums lie under the control of the Ministry of Culture, Government of India.
3. A first-of-its-kind Global Summit on ‘Reimagining Museums in India’ was organised by Ministry of Culture, Government of India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
India is home to over 1,000 museums representing a rich and diverse blend of the cultural, religious and scientific achievements that our civilisation has witnessed over the years. These museums do not just lie under the control of the Ministry of Culture. Other Ministries manage the Railway museums, the crafts and textiles museums, and the food museum, to name a few.
Consider the following statements:
1. The economic wealth of a country is solely decided by the possession of natural resources.
2. Countries that possess lesser or no natural resources cannot have a wealthy economy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
The economic wealth, or well-being, of a country does not necessarily depend on the mere possession of resources; In fact the resource rich Africa and Latin America have some of the poorest countries in the world, whereas many prosperous countries have scarcely any natural wealth. So Statement 1 is not correct.
The essential point is how even a minimum availability of natural resources are used in generating a flow of production and how, as a consequence, countries with less natural resources can generate income and wealth. So, Statement 2 is not correct
Consider the following statements regarding Cabinet Committees.
1. Cabinet Committees are mentioned in the Constitution of India.
2. They facilitate in-depth examination of policy issues and effective coordination.
3. The Cabinet can review their decisions.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Cabinet Committees are extra-constitutional in emergence. In other words, they are not mentioned in the Constitution. However, the Rules of Business provide for their establishment. They are an organizational device to reduce the enormous workload of the Cabinet. They also facilitate in-depth examination of policy issues and effective coordination. They not only sort out issues and formulate proposals for the consideration of the Cabinet, but also take decisions. However, the Cabinet can review their decisions.
Which of the following indicators are included under the “Gender Inequality Index”?
1. Maternal mortality ratio
2. Parliamentary representation
3. Attainment of secondary or higher education
4. Labour force participation ratio
5. Adolescent birth rate
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Gender Inequality Index (GII) is a composite measure, reflecting inequality in achievements between women and men in three dimensions: reproductive health, empowerment and the labour market. The health dimension is measured by the maternal mortality ratio and the adolescent birth rate. The empowerment dimension is measured by the share of parliamentary seats held by each gender, and by secondary and higher education attainment levels. The labour dimension is measured by labour force participation rate of female and male populations aged 15 years and older.
So, option (d) is correct.
Foreign exchange reserves are held in the form of
1. Gold
2. US dollars
3. Non-dollar currencies
Select the correct answer code:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Foreign exchange reserves are held in the form of dollars as well as non-dollar currencies and gold, whose value is, in turn, influenced by movements in exchange rates and gold prices.
‘I2U2’ group, recently seen in news comprises of
1. US
2. Iraq
3. India
4. UAE
Select the correct answer code:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
The I2U2 Group is a grouping of India, Israel, the United Arab Emirates, and the United States. The group’s joint statement states that the countries aim to cooperate on “joint investments and new initiatives in water, energy, transportation, space, health, and food security.”
Which of the following can be achieved using a well-planned fiscal policy?
1. Controlling inflation
2. Reducing unemployment
3. Promoting inclusive growth
4. Realising regionally equitable growth
5. Achieving exchange rate stability
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Fiscal policy means the use to taxation and public expenditure by the government for stabilizing and growth of economy. It has to maintain achieve full employment, equilibrium in the balance of payment, the price level, growth rate of the economy, and promote the economic development of underdeveloped countries.
So, option (d) is correct.
Which of the following statements best describes the term ‘Unemployment’?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Unemployment refers to the situation where an individual is able and willing to work at an existing wage rate but does not finds any work.
Consider the following statements about the monetisation of deficit in India:
1. It means an increase in the net RBI credit to the central government.
2. It leads to an increase in total money supply in the system and hence can cause inflation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
1. It means an increase in the net RBI credit to the central government.
2. It leads to an increase in total money supply in the system and hence can cause inflation.
Consider the following statements regarding Contempt of Court.
1. The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, states that fair criticism of any case which has been heard and decided is not contempt.
2. Civil contempt means wilful disobedience to any judgement and publication of any matter which lowers the authority of a court.
3. Criminal contempt means doing an act that obstructs the administration of Justice.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Contempt of court may be civil or criminal.
Civil contempt means willful disobedience to any judgement, order, writ or other process of a court or willful breach of an undertaking given to a court.
Criminal contempt means the publication of any matter or doing an act which—
(i) scandalises or lowers the authority of a court; or
(ii) prejudices or interferes with the due course of a judicial proceeding; or
(iii) interferes or obstructs the administration of justice in any other manner.
The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, very clearly states that fair criticism of any case which has been heard and decided is not contempt.
In the context of the public finance of India, arrange the following deficits in the order of high to low based on their values:
1. Fiscal Deficit
2. Effective Revenue Deficit
3. Revenue Deficit
4. Primary Deficit
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Budget deficit is the difference between all receipts and expenses in both revenue and capital account of the government. It always becomes as the value of 0. Revenue deficit is the excess of its total revenue expenditure to its total revenue receipts. Primary deficit refers to the difference between the current year’s fiscal deficit and interest payments on previous borrowings. Fiscal deficit – Interest payment = Primary deficit The fiscal deficit is the difference between the total income of the government and its expenditure. It is greatest of all the deficits.
So, Option (d) is correct.
Which of the following can reveal patterns of climate change on earth?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
An interglacial period (or alternatively interglacial) is a geological interval of warmer global average temperature lasting thousands of years that separates consecutive glacial periods within an ice age. Evidence of multiple advances and retreats of glaciers, and the sediment deposits in glacial lakes reveal the occurrence of warm and cold periods in the history of earth. It is a strong evidence of climate change. Because trees are sensitive to local climate conditions, such as rain and temperature, they give scientists some information about that area’s local climate in the past. For example, tree rings usually grow wider in warm, wet years and they are thinner in years when it is cold and dry.
Consider the following statements about a closed economy:
1. A closed economy is completely self-sufficient, with no imports or exports from international trade
2. A socialist economy is definitely a closed economy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
A closed economy is one that has no trading activity with outside economies. The closed economy is therefore entirely self- sufficient, which means no imports come into the country and no exports leave the country. So Statement 1 is correct.
Even for socialist economy, if they lack resources, then they have to be dependent on Import. So Statement 2 is not correct
Consider the following statements regarding IUCN Red List.
1. The aim of the IUCN Red List is to convey the urgency of conservation issues to the public and policy makers, as well as help the international community to reduce species extinction.
2. It is the world’s most comprehensive inventory of the global conservation status of biological species.
3. The pink pages in this publication include the formerly endangered species.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
IUCN Red List or Red Data List or Red Book
The IUCN Red List of Threatened Species, founded in 1964, is the world’s most comprehensive inventory of the global conservation status of biological species.
The aim of the IUCN Red List is to convey the urgency of conservation issues to the public and policy makers, as well as help the international community to reduce species extinction.
The pink pagesin this publication include the critically endangered species. As the status of the species changes, new pages are sent to the subscribers.
Green pagesare used for those species that were formerly endangered but have now recovered to a point where they are no longer threatened.
With passing time, the number of pink pages continue to increase.
In which one of the following types of unemployment, the marginal product of employed people is zero?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Disguised unemployment is when too many people are employed than what is required to produce efficiently. This kind of employment is not at all productive. It is not productive in a sense that production does not suffer even if some of the employed people are withdrawn. The key point to remember is that the marginal productivity of labourers under disguised unemployment is zero. The labourers are employed physically, but not economically.
So, option (d) is correct.
International capital flows have been uncertain and volatile, causing exchange rate and balance of payment crises. Among the various sources of external capital available to India which source is most preferable one?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
FDI is one of the reliable type of investment. FDI investment setup business in an economy, provide jobs and increase economic activities.
Consider the following statements about the “Drug Prices Control Order”:
1. It is an order issued by the Government of India under the Essential Commodities Act of 1955.
2. It provides ceiling price of every drug sold in India to ensure drugs are accessible at reasonable costs.
3. Drugs Controller General of India is vested with the power to implement this order.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Currently, NPPA has allowed an increased in the retail prices for 21 drugs currently under price control. This decision is taken to ensure the life saving essential drugs available must remain available. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The implementation provision has vested by the National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA). It is an Independent body expert as decision taken by cabinet committee while reviewing the drugs. So, statement 3 is not correct.
What are the criteria for an intangible cultural heritage to be inscribed in the UNESCO’s list of Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
There are three criteria for an intangible cultural heritage to be inscribed in the United Nations list. The entity must “(1) be recognized by communities, groups and, in some cases, individuals as part of their cultural heritage, (2) be transmitted from generation to generation and be constantly recreated by communities and groups in response to their environment, their interaction with nature and their history and (3) provide them with a sense of identity and continuity, thus promoting respect for cultural diversity and human creativity,” according to UNESCO report.
Consider the following statements.
1. The Great Barrier Reef is the world’s largest coral reef system, located off the coast of Queensland, Australia.
2. Great Barrier Reef is in the List of World Heritage sites in Danger.
3. Under the 1972 World Heritage Convention, inscribing a site on the List of World Heritage sites in Danger allows the World Heritage Centre to allocate immediate assistance from the World Heritage Fund to the site and gathering international support to the site.
Select the correct statements from above using the codes given below:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
What is the Great Barrier Reef?
Located off the coast of Queensland, Australia, the GBR is the world’s largest coral reef system with over 2,900 individual reefs, 900 islands and an area covering approximately 344,400 square kilometres. An irreplaceable part of the global ecosystem, the GBR is one of the biggest biodiversity hotspots in the world as well as one of its largest carbon sinks.
Keeping in mind the dangers that the reef faces, the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) and UNESCO’s World Heritage Centre (WHC) report recommended adding the GBR to the List of World Heritage in Danger. According to UNESCO, “the List of World Heritage in Danger is designed to inform the international community of conditions which threaten the very characteristics for which a property was inscribed on the World Heritage List, and to encourage corrective action.” Under the 1972 World Heritage Convention, inscribing a site on the List allows the WHC to allocate immediate assistance from the World Heritage Fund to the endangered property, while simultaneously gathering international support and attention to the site.
The term ‘Four Balance Sheet Problem’ was seen frequently in the news in the context of the Indian economy. It refers to which of the following four categories of institutions?
1. Banks
2. Non-Banking Financial Companies
3. Software Companies
4. Real Estate Companies
5. Infrastructure Companies
6. Food Processing Companies
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Answer Given: SKIPPED
The four balance sheet problem categorizes which slowdown the India. It encompassing banks and infrastructure companies began after the global financial crisis when the world economy slow down. They collapse of the credit boom, led by NBFCs and the real estate sectors that are unsustainable financing of a rising inventory of unsold housing. So, option (a) is correct.
Bazball method, that was recently in news is related to which sport?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
1. Black hydrogen : Produced by use of fossil fuel
2. Pink hydrogen : Produced through Natural Gas
3. Grey hydrogen : Produced through electrolysis, but using energy from nuclear power sources.
Select the correct answer code:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Which of the following are the functions of the Reserve Bank of India?
1. Acting as the banker of the government
2. Stabilising the exchange rate of the rupee
3. Acting as the agent of the Government of India in International Monetary Fund
4. Circulating currency and coins
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Answer Given: SKIPPED
RBI performs the same functions for the other commercial banks as the other banks ordinarily perform for their functions. It lends money to all the commercial banks. So, statement 1 is correct.
RBI buys and sells foreign currency when it supply decreases the economy and also protect foreign exchange fund for the purpose of stable the exchange rate. So, statement 2 is correct.
It performs all the banking sector for central and state and it also tenders useful advice to the government related to the economic and monetary policy. It also manages public debt of the government. So, statement 2 is correct.
To give the public adequate quantity of supplies of currency notes and coins and in good quality. RBI is a charge of issuing and exchanging of currency and coins. So, statement 4 is correct.
The ‘Boao Forum for Asia (BFA)’ is China’s equivalent of
Answer Given: SKIPPED
The Boao Forum for Asia (BFA) is a non-profit organisation that hosts high-level forums for leaders from government, business and academia in Asia and other continents to share their vision on the most pressing issues in this region and the world at large. BFA is modelled on the World Economic Forum held annually in Davos.
Which of the following are included as “capital expenditure”?
1. Loans raised by the union government from the public.
2. Investment by the union government in shares.
3. Loans and advances by the union government to state governments.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Answer Given: SKIPPED
The capital receipts are loans raised by Government from public, called market loans, borrowings by Government from Reserve Bank and other parties through sale of Treasury Bills, loans received from foreign Governments and bodies, and recoveries of loans from State and Union Territory Governments and other parties. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Consider the following statements.
1. Charaideo moidams are royal burial sites of Ahom dynasty.
2. Charaideo moidams are mainly located in Tripura.
3. Till now no cultural heritage site in the North East India has been included in the UNESCO World Heritage Sites list.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
The central government has put forth the name of Assam’s Charaideo moidams burial sites for addition to United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization’s (UNESCO) World Heritage Sites list. If selected, 90 royal burials at Charaideo will be the only cultural heritage site in the North East to get the coveted status. The Charaideo moidams are royal burial sites of the Ahom dynasty, which ruled over much of Assam and the North East from 1228 to 1826 AD. Located around 30 km from Sivasagar town in eastern Assam, even today, the tumuli in Charaideo are considered sacrosanct by many locals. A moidam is a tumulus – a mound of earth raised over a grave – of Ahom royalty and aristocracy. While Charaideo exclusively contains moidams of Ahom royals, other moidams of aristocrats and chiefs can be found scattered across Eastern Assam, in the region between the towns of Jorhat and Dibrugarh. Inside the chambers of the moidam, the dead king would be buried along with items he needed for the “afterlife”, as well as servants, horses, livestock and even their wives. It is the similarity of the Ahom burial rites with that of the ancient Egyptians that give Charaideo moidams the moniker of “Pyramids of Assam.”
Consider the following statements:
1. Inequality is measured using the Kuznets Curve.
2. When the value of the Gini Coefficient is 1, it indicates perfect equality.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
In economics, a Kuznets curve graphs the hypothesis that as an economy develops, market forces first increase and then decrease economic inequality. Kuznets believed that inequality would follow an inverted "U" shape as it rises and then falls again with the increase of income per-capita. But Gini coefficient index is used in measuring inequality. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Gini Coefficients can be used to compare income distribution of a country over time as well. Its value varies anywhere from zero to 1, zero indicating perfect equality and one indicating the perfect inequality. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Consider the following statements.
1. In India, Agricultural commodities like cotton, paddy, soyabean, mustard seed, etc., are traded on the National Commodities and Derivatives Exchange (NCDEX) and the Multi Commodity Exchange (MCX).
2. Derivatives are short-term financial contracts that are bought and sold in the market.
3. Profits are made in the derivatives trade by predicting price movements of the asset that underlies the contract.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Agricultural commodities like cotton, paddy, soyabean, soya oil, mustard seed, etc., are traded on the National Commodities and Derivatives Exchange (NCDEX) and the Multi Commodity Exchange (MCX). Derivatives are short-term financial contracts that are bought and sold in the market. Profits are made in the derivatives trade by predicting price movements of the asset that underlies the contract. The derivatives trade can be in futures and options. In a futures contract, a supplier pledges to sell a certain quantity at a fixed price at a future date. Also, farmers can put fixed amounts of their produce, which fits the quality standards of the exchange, to be sold at a fixed price — almost like price insurance. Both contracts can be exited by either the producer or the trader by paying a margin price to the exchange.
If the Reserve Bank of India decides to adopt dear money policy, then it would
1. Raise Statutory Liquidity Ratio
2. Raise Repo Rate
3. Lower Reverse Repo Rate
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Reducing the Reverse repo rate will make more money available with the bank allowing the customers to borrow easily at a lesser rate which is contrary to dear money policy. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Consider the following statements.
1. Kandla port is the first port developed after India’s Independence
2. Visakhapatnam port is the oldest but artificial port in India
3. Chennai port is the deepest landlocked port in India
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Visakhapatnam is deepest landlocked port. Chennai port is one of the oldest but artificial port.
Consider the following statements about the “Treasury Bills” in India:
1. They are money market instruments which are long term in nature.
2. They are normally used by the Union Government to fulfil its short-term liquidity requirement.
3. They also function as part of requirements of Statutory Liquidity Ratio of banking institutions.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
It is T-bills are short term (less than one year) borrowing instrument of the government by a central authority. So, statement 1 is not correct.
They are issued by Central government. They are auctioned by the RBI at a regular intervals and issued at a discount to face value. So, statement 2 is correct.
Individuals, Firms, Trust, Institution and banks can purchase T-Bills. The commercial and cooperative banks use T-bills for fulfilled their statutory liquidity ratio requirements. So, statement 3 is correct.
Which of the following statements regarding Atal Tinkering Laboratories (ATLs) is incorrect?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Consider the following statements about “capital goods”:
1. These are goods that make the production of other goods feasible, yet they don’t get transformed in the process.
2. These are final goods, but they are not final goods to be ultimately consumed.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
While capital goods make production of other commodities feasible, they themselves don’t get transformed in the production process So, Statement 1 is correct.
Capital goods are not final goods to be ultimately consumed unlike the consumer goods, yet they are the crucial backbone of any production process, in aiding and enabling the production to take place. So, Statement 2 is correct
Which of the following are the destabilising geological processes that pose a serious threat to human habitation in the highlands of western Ghats?
1. Land subsidence
2. Lateral spread
3. Soil piping
Select the correct answer code:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
1. Land subsidence
2. Lateral spread
3. Soil piping
Which one of the following statements is correct about the “Monetary Policy Committee” of India?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
To maintain 4% annual inflation with an upper tolerance of 6% and a lower tolerance of 2% is mandated. So, option (d) is correct
Which of the following elements from India have been listed on the UNESCO’s list of Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity?
1. Garba, a traditional dance form that originated in the state of Gujarat
2. Kolkata’s Durga Puja
3. Kumbh Mela
4. Sankirtana, a ritual musical performance of Manipur
5. Buddhist chanting of Ladakh
Select the correct answer code:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
What are India’s intangible cultural symbols on the UNESCO list?
This year, India nominated Garba, a traditional dance form that originated in the state of Gujarat, for inscription on UNESCO’s ICH list. The elements which have been on the representative list of intangible cultural heritage from India in the past decade include Kolkata’s Durga Puja (2021), Kumbh Mela (2017), Navroz (2016), Yoga (2016), traditional brass and copper craft of utensil-making among coppersmiths of Punjab (2014), Sankirtana, a ritual musical performance of Manipur (2013), and the Buddhist chanting of Ladakh (2012). Before 2011, the list included Chhau dance, Kalbelia folk songs and dance of Rajasthan, and Mudiyettu, a dance drama from Kerala (2010), Ramman, a religious festival and theatre performance of Garhwal in the Himalayas (2009), and Kutiyattam or Sanskrit theatre, and Vedic chanting (2008). Ramlila, a traditional performance of Ramayana, was also included in 2008.
Consider the following statements about the “Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act” of 2003:
1. The act originally limited the revenue deficit to 3% of the GDP.
2. The act mandated to end monetization of the deficit.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
FRBM rule specifies reduction of fiscal deficit to 3% of the GDP by 2008-09 with annual reduction target of 0.3% of GDP per year by the Central government. Similarly, revenue deficit has to be reduced by 0.5% of the GDP per year with complete elimination to be achieved by 2008-09. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Consider the following statements.
1. Several autonomous bodies within the Ministry of Culture actively function towards promoting and preserving intangible cultural heritage within India.
2. Sangeet Natak Akademi files nominations of intangible cultural entities from India to UNESCO’s Representative List of Intangible Cultural Heritage.
Select the correct statements from above using the codes given below:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Who manages nominations to the UNESCO list in India?
Tim accidentally ordered an extra packet of bread online and forgot to order eggs. At the same time, his roommate Ryan had run out of bread but had more than necessary eggs. When they both discovered each other’s issue, they were relieved. They exchanged the bread and eggs and went on with their day.
This kind of transaction is an example of which of the following?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Economic exchanges without the mediation of money are referred to as barter exchanges. This happens when a person with surplus commodity A and in a demand for Commodity B finds another person who has the diametrically opposite demand for Commodity A with a surplus of Commodity B to offer in exchange. So, option (b) is correct.
Consider the following statements.
1. The doctrine of progressive realisation of rights mandates that the laws of a country should be in consonance with its modern ethos, it should be sensible and easy to apply.
2. The International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (ICESCR) seeks to achieve progressively the full realisation of the rights recognised in the Covenant by adopting legislative measures.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
The doctrine of progressive realisation of rights mandates that the laws of a country should be in consonance with its modern ethos, it should be “sensible” and “easy to apply”.
In modern societies, this primitiveness necessitated the principle of non-retrogression, or the doctrine of progressive realisation of rights. Article 2(1) of International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (ICESCR) — India is a signatory — seeks to “achieving progressively the full realisation of the rights recognised in the Covenant by all appropriate means, including particularly the adoption of legislative measures”.
Which one of the following will help in deriving “core inflation”?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Core inflation is generally derived from WPI which does not include services. So, Option (a) is not correct.
Estimating the cost at whole sale prices would not exhibit with the final end value needed for true estimation of core inflation. So, Option (b) is not correct.
Core inflation is derived from detecting food and fuel item group from the WPI basket. So, Option (c) is correct.
Core inflation is achieved by retaining the manufacturing items alone in the headline inflation. So, Option (d) is not correct.
Consider the following statements regarding Compressed natural gas (CNG).
1. CNG is comprised mostly of methane gas.
2. CNG engines run more quietly due to the higher octane rating of CNG over gasoline.
3. CNG vehicles reduce Harmful emissions such as carbon monoxide (CO), carbon dioxide (CO2) and nitrous oxide (N2O) by more than 90% when compared to gasoline powered vehicles.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Compressed natural gas, or CNG, is natural gas under pressure which remains clear, odourless, and non-corrosive – and can be used as a cheaper, greener, and more efficient alternative to the traditional petrol and diesel fuels for vehicles. CNG is comprised mostly of methane gas which, like gasoline, produces engine power when mixed with air and fed into your engine’s combustion chamber. CNG engines run more quietly due to the higher-octane rating of CNG over gasoline and they produce less exhaust emissions. Harmful emissions such as carbon monoxide (CO), carbon dioxide (CO2) and nitrous oxide (N2O) can be reduced by as much as 95% when compared to gasoline powered vehicles.
Which one of the following scenarios is likely to be the most inflationary in nature?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Repaying public debt is a long term wellness prospective which will reduce the economics liability thereby reducing inflation in the long run. So, Option (a) is not correct.
Spending on public welfare by borrowing from both public and private sector banks will increase the demand of the government side and increase the money supply in the economy their by causing inflation at the present, asset/infrastructure creation will reduce the inflation in the long run So, Option (b) and (c) is not correct.
Printing of new money for public expenditure is the most inflationary compare to above option as it will pump abundant money supply immediately into the economy their by causing sudden running inflation. So, Option (d) is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding Tarballs.
1. Tarballs are dark-coloured, sticky balls of oil that are found on the ocean surface.
2. Tarballs are formed by weathering of crude oil in marine environments.
3. Usually Tarballs are washed away from the beaches during monsoon.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Tarballs are dark-coloured, sticky balls of oil that form when crude oil floats on the ocean surface. Tarballs are formed by weathering of crude oil in marine environments. They are transported from the open sea to the shores by sea currents and waves. Some of the balls are as big as a basketball while others are smaller globules. Tarballs are usually coin-sized and are found strewn on the beaches. However, over the years, they have become as big as basketballs and can weigh as much as 6-7 kgs. Wind and waves tear the oil slick into smaller patches that are scattered over a much wider area. Various physical, chemical and biological processes (weathering) change the appearance of the oil.
Why are tarballs found on the beaches during the monsoon?
It is suspected that the oil comes from the large cargo ships in the deep sea and gets pushed to the shore as tarballs during monsoon due to wind speed and direction.
When the prices of goods and services, as well as the rate of unemployment, are at high levels, then which of the following is the economy experiencing?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
The rate of inflation at a slower rate is called disinflation. So, Option (a) is not correct.
Stagflation means low National Income Growth and High unemployment. The Philips curve shows that at high rate of inflation, there is low of unemployment. So, Option (b) is correct.
It means rapid and significant sales growth, while a boom for a country is marked by significant GDP growth. So, Option (c) is not correct.
It is opposite to that of inflation. The persistent and appreciable fall in the general levels of prices is called Deflation. So, Option
(d) is not correct.
Asphyxiation is a condition that occurs
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Asphyxiation, or suffocation, occurs when the body is deprived of oxygen.
Asphyxia can result from drowning, asthma, choking, strangulation, seizure, drug overdose, or inhaling chemical substances. Asphyxiation can lead to loss of consciousness, brain injury, and death.
With reference to the economic growth and economic development, consider the following statements:
1. While the combination of high growth and high development scenario is highly possible, the combination of high growth and low development is also possible.
2. While the combination of low growth and low development is highly possible, the combination of low growth and high development is not at all possible.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
In a country where GDP is low, high development is possible if the resources are evenly distributed or the public expenditure is focused on development of social indicators. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Consider the following statements.
1. The Bar Council of India is a statutory body that regulates the legal practice and legal education in India.
2. In India, the law empowers the Bar Council of India (BCI) to make rules with respect to “the standard of professional conduct and etiquette to be observed by advocates”.
3. In India, the law allows the lawyers and legal practitioners to advertise their work.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
In India, lawyers and legal practitioners are not allowed to advertise their work.
Section 49(1)(c) of the Advocates Act, 1961 empowers the Bar Council of India (BCI) to make rules with respect to “the standard of professional conduct and etiquette to be observed by advocates”. Rule 36 in Chapter II (“Standards of Professional Conduct and Etiquette”) of Part VI (“Rules Governing Advocates”) of the BCI Rules published in 1975 prohibits lawyers from advertising their work. Rule 36 also requires that an advocate’s signboard or nameplate “should be of a reasonable size”. The signboard/ nameplate or stationery “should not indicate that he is or has been President or Member of a Bar Council or of any Association or that he has been associated with any person or organisation or with any particular cause or matter or that he specialises in any particular type of work or that he has been a Judge or an Advocate General”. The Bar Council of India is a statutory body that regulates the legal practice and legal education in India. Lawyers can legally advertise their services in the United States, the United Kingdom, Australia, and the European Union.
Why the Indian economy is often characterised as having experienced jobless growth?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Jobless growth in India is the growth story of last two decades where growth is fuelled by few divisions in tertiary sector showing predominant contribution to the GDP. Being a less labor intensive industry it employees very few people resulting in low or stagnant growth in primary and secondary sectors, which is cumulatively called as Jobless growth. So, option (c) is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding Norovirus.
1. Norovirus is one of the primary causes of gastroenteritis.
2. The virus is not capable of surviving low temperatures, and hence the outbreaks tend to be more common during Summer.
3. The infection can be transmitted through foods contaminated with the virus.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Norovirus is not new; it has been circulating among humans for over 50 years and is thought to be one of the primary causes of gastroenteritis. The virus is estimated to kill 200,000 persons globally every year, with most deaths occurring among those below the age of five years and those over the age of 65 years. The virus is capable of surviving low temperatures, and outbreaks tend to be more common during the winter and in colder countries — that is why it is sometimes referred to as “winter vomiting disease”. Cases of norovirus are not as common in India as in many other places. Norovirus leads to diarrhoea, vomiting, nausea, and abdominal pain. Being a diarrhoeal disease, it can lead to dehydration, so drinking plenty of fluids is recommended. The infection can be transmitted through foods contaminated with the virus, touching surfaces that are contaminated with the virus and then touching the mouth, and being in direct contact with someone with the infection like taking care of them and sharing foods and utensils with them. Good hand hygiene is the best way to prevent infection. The norovirus can survive temperatures as high as 60 degrees Celsius.
Which of the following measures control inflation in an economy?
1. The decrease in indirect taxes
2. The decrease in direct taxes
3. Reduction in unnecessary expenditure
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Decrease in indirect will enable more disposable income in the hands of people, making the demand for goods to increase thereby increasing the prices of goods increasing the inflation. So, statement 2 is not correct.
India has partial capital account convertibility. This implies that
1. India has a negative balance of payment.
2. Private foreign denominated debt needs to be met by either private export earnings or India’s forex reserves.
Select the correct answer code:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Capital account convertibility means the freedom to conduct investment transactions without any constraints. Typically, it would mean no restrictions on the amount of rupees you can convert into foreign currency to enable you, an Indian resident, to acquire any foreign asset. Similarly, there should be no restraints on your NRI cousin bringing in any amount of dollars or dirhams to acquire an asset in India. India has come a long way in liberating the capital account transactions in the last three decades and currently has partial capital account convertibility. Since India has partial capital account convertibility, this implies that private foreign denominated debt also needs to be met by either private export earnings or India’s forex reserves.
There is no correlation between capital account convertibility and Balance of Payment.
The difference between the value of production of a firm and the value of intermediate goods used by the firm gives which one of the following?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Value Added refers to the addition of value to the raw material by a firm by virtue of its productive activities. It is the difference between value of output and value of intermediate inputs. So, option (a) is correct
Species are classified by the IUCN Red List into which of the following groups?
1. Least concern
2. Data deficient
3. Not evaluated
4. Extinct in the wild
Select the correct answer code:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Consider the following pairs:
Category of NBFC - Regulator
1. Venture Capital Fund - SEBI
2. Chit Funds - RBI
3. Nidhi companies - Ministry of Corporate Affairs
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Chit fund is a scheme where monthly contributions from pre specified members add to the total chit fund amount for the term distributed back to them in a profitable manner, which is regulated by respective state governments. So, pair 2 is not correct.
Consider the following statements regarding Neglected Tropical Diseases (NTDs).
1. They are infections that are common among marginalised communities in the developing regions of Africa and Asia.
2. They are caused by a variety of pathogens such as bacteria, viruses, protozoa and parasitic worms.
3. HIV-AIDS, malaria and Tuberculosis are some of the prominent Neglected Tropical Diseases.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
What are Neglected Tropical Diseases?
They are infections that are most common among marginalised communities in the developing regions of Africa, Asia and the Americas. Caused by a variety of pathogens such as viruses, bacteria, protozoa and parasitic worms. They generally receive less funding for research and treatment than malaises like tuberculosis, HIV-AIDS and malaria. Some examples include snakebite envenomation, scabies, yaws, trachoma, Leishmaniasis and Chagas disease.
Which of the following sectors are included under the “Priority Sector Lending” scheme of the banks?
1. Housing
2. Export credit
3. Renewable energy
4. Micro, Small and Medium enterprises
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Priority sector lending includes the following categories: Agriculture, Micro, small and medium enterprises MSME, Export credit, Housing, Social infrastructure, Renewable energy and Others. So, option (d) is correct.
The GST Council has the power to make recommendations on which of the following matters?
1. A model GST law
2. The rates at which tax is to be levied
3. The goods and services that may be exempted from GST
Select the correct answer code:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
The GST Council was given the power to “make recommendations to the Union and States” on several different matters. These include a model GST law, the goods and services that may be subjected to or exempted from GST and the rates at which tax is to be levied.
Which of the following instruments have a maturity period of less than one year?
1. Call money
2. Commercial Papers
3. Treasury Bills
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Call money is an interbank and financial institutions loan transaction market with a maximum maturity period up to 14 days.
So, statement 1 is correct.
Commercial papers are short term debt instruments issued by private industrial companies with a maturity period of 3-6 months. So, statement 2 is correct.
Treasury bills are non interest bearing coupons of central government with various maturity periods, all varieties fall within a year. So, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme.
1. Bonds can be used as collateral for loans.
2. The maximum permissible investment limit will be 10 kg of gold for individual.
3. Both resident and non-resident Indian entities can invest in Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
The sovereign gold bond was introduced by the Government in 2015.
Government introduced these bonds to help reduce India’s over dependence on gold imports. It was also aimed at changing the habits of Indians from saving in physical form of gold to a paper form with Sovereign backing.
Key facts:
Eligibility: The bonds will be restricted for sale to resident Indian entities, including individuals, HUFs, trusts, universities and charitable institutions. Denomination and tenor: The bonds will be denominated in multiples of gram(s) of gold with a basic unit of 1 gram. The tenor will be for a period of 8 years with exit option from the 5th year to be exercised on the interest payment dates. Minimum and Maximum limit: The minimum permissible investment limit will be 1 gram of gold, while the maximum limit will be 4 kg for individual, 4 kg for Hindu Undivided Family and 20 kg for trusts and similar entities per fiscal (April-March) notified by the government from time to time. Joint Holder: In case of joint holding, the investment limit of 4 kg will be applied to the first applicant only. Collateral: Bonds can be used as collateral for loans. The loan-to-value (LTV) ratio is to be set equal to ordinary gold loan mandated by the Reserve Bank from time to time.
Consider the following statements about the “Open Market Operations”:
1. It is an instrument of monetary policy under which only purchase of government Treasury Bills and bonds takes place.
2. It is used as a means of controlling the money supply.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Open Market Operations are market operations conducted by central banks by way of sale/purchase of government securities to/from the market with an objective to adjust the rupee liquidity conditions in the market on a durable basis. The government securities in India include Treasury Bills (T-bills), Cash Management Bills (CMBs), dated G-Secs, and State Development Loans (SDLs). So, statement 1 is not correct.
Consider the following statements regarding Green Turtles.
1. Green turtles are named because of the greenish color of their shells.
2. They are found mainly in tropical and subtropical waters.
3. Unlike other sea turtles, they do not migrate long distances.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
The green turtle is one of the largest sea turtles and the only herbivore among the different species. Green turtles are in fact named for the greenish color of their cartilage and fat, not their shells. In the Eastern Pacific, a group of green turtles that have darker shells are called black turtles by the local community. Green turtles are found mainly in tropical and subtropical waters. Like other sea turtles, they migrate long distances between feeding grounds and the beaches from where they hatched.
Consider the following statements:
1. Scheduled banks are those which are listed in the 2nd schedule of the RBI Act, 1934.
2. Regional Rural Banks are also a type of scheduled banks.
3. Scheduled banks are eligible for obtaining loans on repo rate from the Reserve Bank of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
All banks which fall under second schedule of RBI act, 1934 are scheduled banks. Scheduled bank includes the list of SBI and its subsidiaries, all nationalized banks, regional rural banks, foreign banks and some cooperative banks. So, statement 1 and 2 are correct.
Scheduled banks and other recognized banks for repo transaction are only are eligible to obtain loans from RBI on pre described bank rate. So, statement 3 is correct.