Download App to attend Free Live Classes

Consider the following statements about antibodies:
1. An antibody or immunoglobulin is a protein used by the immune system to identify and neutralize both pathogenic bacteria and viruses.
2. Monoclonal antibodies are natural antibodies that mimic the activity of our immune systems.
3. The difference between monoclonal antibodies and convalescent plasma is that Monoclonal antibodies are extremely pure & plasma has a lot of other things in it, which could lead to allergic reactions.
Which of the following are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct:
An antibody (Ab), also known as an immunoglobulin (Ig) is a large, Y-shaped protein used by the immune system to identify and neutralize foreign objects such as pathogenic bacteria and viruses. The antibody recognizes a unique molecule of the pathogen, called an antigen. Each tip of the "Y" of an antibody contains a paratope (analogous to a lock) that is specific for one particular epitope (analogous to a key) on an antigen, allowing these two structures to bind together with precision
Statement 2 is incorrect: What are monoclonal antibodies?
To fight a viral infection, our bodies create proteins known as antibodies. Monoclonal antibodies are artificial antibodies that mimic the activity of our immune systems. They are produced through a process that involves extracting specific antibodies from human blood and then cloning them. These monoclonal antibodies are designed to target a virus or a specific part of one — for instance, REGEN-COV2 is a cocktail of two monoclonal antibodies developed to target the SARS-CoV-2 spike protein. The monoclonal antibodies bind to specific parts of the spike protein, blocking its ability to infect healthy cells. Monoclonal antibodies are when you take a specific antibody and mass-manufacture it in a factory.
Statement 3 is correct:
Monoclonal antibodies are “extremely pure” due to their homogenous nature, The difference between monoclonal antibodies and convalescent plasma is that plasma has a lot of other things in it, which could lead to allergic and other reactions.
Consider the following Scheduled Tribes and the States to which they belong to:
Tribes : State
1. Hatti A Karnataka
2. Narikoravan B Tamil Nadu
3. Betta-Kuruba C Himachal Pradesh
4. Binjhia D Chattisgarh
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
Recently, government has approved the inclusion of certain communities in the lists of Scheduled
Tribes so that they can avail of benefits meant for STs, including reservation.
? The Tribes included:
? Hatti tribe (Trans-Giri area of Sirmour district in Himachal Pradesh)
? Narikoravan and Kurivikkaran (Tamil Nadu)
? Binjhia(Chhattisgarh)
? Gond Community (Uttar Pradesh)
? ‘Betta-Kuruba’ (Karnataka)
The “Cyber Security Exercise Synergy?, which involved 13 countries, was conducted by:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? Computer Emergency Response Team -India (CERT-In) successfully designed & conducted the Cyber Security Exercise “Synergy” for 13 Countries as part of the International Counter Ransomware Initiative. The exercise was conducted as part of the International Counter Ransomware Initiative-Resilience Working Group which is being led by India under the leadership of National Security Council Secretariat (NSCS).
? The exercise scenario was derived from real life cyber incidents, in which a domestic level (limited impact) ransomware incident escalates to a global cyber security .
India is a member of which of the following International Treaties/ Groupings?
1. Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)
2. Comprehensive Nuclear Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT)
3. Treaty on the Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (TNPW)
4. Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG)
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) is an international treaty whose objective is to prevent the spread of nuclear weapons and weapons technology, to foster the peaceful uses of nuclear energy, and to further the goal of disarmament. Presently, it has 191 member states. India is one of the only five countries that either did not sign the NPT or signed but withdrew later, thus becoming part of a list that includes Pakistan, Israel, North Korea, and South Sudan. India always considered the NPT as discriminatory and had refused to sign it. Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT) is a multilateral treaty to ban nuclear weapons test explosions and any other nuclear explosions, for both civilian and military purposes, in all environments. It was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly on 10 September 1996, but has not entered into force, as eight specific nations have not ratified the treaty: China, Egypt, Iran, Israel, USA,India, North Korea and Pakistan. The Treaty on the Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons (TPNW), or the Nuclear Weapon Ban Treaty, is the first legally binding international agreement to comprehensively prohibit nuclear weapons with the ultimate goal being theirtotal elimination. It was adopted on 7July 2017, opened for signature on 20September 2017, and entered into force on 22January 2021. India is not a member of this treaty. Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) is a group of nuclear supplier countries that seek to prevent nuclear proliferation by controlling the export of materials, equipment, and technology that can be used to manufacture nuclear weapons. NSG consists of 48 members which include the five nuclear weapon states US, UK, France, China, and Russia. It is not a formal organization, and its guidelines are not binding. Decisions, including on membership, are made by consensus. India is not a member of NSG due to opposition from some countries like China as India has not signed Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty.
Consider the following statements:
1. 2+2 Ministerial Dialogue is a diplomatic summit that involves External Affairs and Finance Ministers
of the two participating nations
2. India has 2+2 dialogues with USA, Russia, Japan and Australia
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? 2+2 Ministerial is the highest-level institutional mechanism between the two countries. It is a format of dialogue where the defence/foreign ministers or secretaries meet with their counterparts from another country.
? India has 2+2dialogues with four key strategic partners: the US, Australia, Japan, and Russia.
The term Sherpa Track, often seen in news is associated with:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
About G20
? Group of 20 is a group of 19 countries and the European Union (EU), founded in 1999, with representatives of the International Monetary Fund and the World Bank.
? G20 was formed in 1999 in the backdrop of the financial crisis of the late 1990s that hit East Asia and Southeast Asia in particular. It aims to secure global financial stability by involving middle-income countries. Together, the G20countries include 60% of the world’s population, 80% of global GDP, and 75% of global trade.
? G20 has no permanent secretariat or fixed headquarters. The agenda and work are coordinated by representatives of the G20countries, known as ‘Sherpas’, who work together with the finance ministers and governors of the central banks.
? About Sherpa Track
? It is a G20 working group, comprising of experts and officials from relevant ministries, lead in- depth analysis and discussions on on subjects including strengthening the G20 trade and investment mechanism, promoting global trade growth, supporting the multilateral trading system, promoting global investment policy cooperation and coordination, and promoting inclusive and coordinated global value chains.
Which one of the following statements best describes the term „Windfall Tax??
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? Windfall taxes are designed to tax the profits a company derives from an external, sometimes unprecedented event—for instance, the energy price-rise as a result of the Russia-Ukraine conflict. These are profits that cannot be attributed to something the firm actively did, like an investment strategy or an expansion of business.
? A windfall is defined as an “unearned, unanticipated gain in income through no additional effort or expense”. Governments typically levy a one-off tax retrospectively over and above the normal rates of tax on such profits, called windfall tax. One area where such taxes have routinely been discussed is oil markets, where price fluctuation leads to volatile or erratic profits for the industry.
Prime Minister recently unveiled a new Ensign of the Indian Navy. In this context, consider the
following statements:
1. The earlier Ensign carried Saint George?s Cross with the Tricolor in a corner
2. The new Ensign is inspired from the naval seal of the great emperor Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj
3. Both the new and old ensigns carry the National Emblem of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? The Indian Naval Ensign, also referred to as the Indian White Ensign or Nishaan, is the naval ensign of the Indian Navy, used aboard Indian naval vessels, shore establishments, and naval air stations as its principal form of maritime identification.
? After independence, on August 15, 1947, the Indian defense forces continued with the British colonial flags and badges, and it was only on January 26, 1950, that a changeover to an Indianized pattern was made. It was followed by further gradual changes with time.
? The earlier ensign was a white flag with horizontal and vertical red stripes, with the Emblem of India emblazoned at the intersection of the two stripes and the tricolor placed in the canton.
With reference to the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB), which of the following statements
is/are correct?
1. NCRB functions as a repository of information on crime and criminals to assist investigation
2. It derives its powers from Delhi Police Special Establishment Act, 1941
3. NCRB publishes „Prison Statistics in India? and „Accidental deaths & Suicides in India? reports
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) was set-up in 1986 to function as a repository of information on crime and criminals to assist the investigators in linking crime to the perpetrators.
? NCRB is entrusted with the responsibility for monitoring, coordinating, and implementing the Crime and Criminal Tracking Network & Systems (CCTNS) project. It has also been designated as the Central Nodal Agency to manage technical and operational functions of the ‘Online Cyber-Crime Reporting Portal’.
? Its publications include:
? Accidental Deaths & Suicides in India
? Prison Statistics India
? Fingerprints in India
? Report on missing women and children in India
? NCRB is headquartered in New Delhi and is part of the Ministry of Home Affairs. It was recommended by Tandon Committee, National Police Commission (1977-1981) and the MHA’s Task force (1985).
Consider the following statements regarding Anti-Radiation pills:
1. They are Potassium Iodide tablets that provide protection in cases of radiation exposure
2. It prevents the body?s Thyroid gland from absorbing radioactive Iodine
3. They provide complete protection against any kind of internal radiation exposures
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? Potassium Iodide (KI) tablets, or anti-radiation pills, are known to provide some protection in cases of radiation exposure. They contain non-radioactive iodine and can help block absorption, and subsequent concentration, of radioactive iodine in the thyroid gland.
? After a radiation leak, radioactive iodine floats through the air and then contaminates food, water, and soil. Internal exposure, or irradiation, occurs when radioactive iodine enters the body and accumulates in the thyroid gland. Potassium iodide (KI) tablets rely on this to achieve ‘thyroid blocking’.
? KI pills taken a few hours before or soon after radiation exposure ensure that non-radioactive iodine in the medicine is absorbed quickly to make the thyroid “full”. The thyroid becomes full and cannot absorb any more iodine –either stable or radioactive –for the next 24hours.
? Anti-radiation pills do not provide100%protection. The effectiveness of KI depends on how much radioactive iodine gets into the body and how quickly it is absorbed in the body. Theyare preventive only and cannot reverse any damage done by radiation to the thyroid gland.
In the context of Criminal Justice system of India, consider the following statements:
1. Remission is the reduction of the term of a prison sentence, usually due to good behavior or conduct
2. Every convict has a fundamental right of remission
3. State governments have the power to grant premature release for life convicts
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
Remission is the reduction of the term of a prison sentence, usually due to good behaviour or conduct. In remission, the nature of the sentence remains untouched, while the duration is reduced i.e., the rest of the sentence need not be undergone. The effect of the remission is that the prisoner is given a certain date on which he shall be released and in the eyes of the law he would be a free man. However, in case of breach of any of the conditions of remission, it will be cancelled, and the offender has to serve the entire term for which he was originally sentenced The remission system has been defined under the Prison Act, 1894to be a set of rules formulated for the time being in force regulating the award of marks to, and the consequent shortening of sentence of, prisoners in Jail. The remission of sentences in India is governed by constitutional provisions, statutory provisions and also state policies. Article 72and Article 161grants powers for remission to President and Governor respectively CrPC Section 432 and Section 433A are the relevant provisions with regard to remission. Section 433provides the appropriate government power to suspend or remit sentences.? Every state has different remission policies. It was observed in the Kehar Singh vs. Union of India (1989) case that Courts cannot deny to a prisoner the benefit to be considered for remission of sentence. The Supreme Court also in the case of State of Haryana vs. Mahender Singh (2007) observed that, even though no convict has a fundamental right of remission, but the State in exercise of its executive power of remission must consider each individual case keeping in view the relevant factors. Further, the Court was also of the view that a right to be considered for remission must be held to be legal one.
With respect to the Financial Organizations in India, which of the following statements is correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
Financial Intelligence Unit was established in India in 2004 as the central national agency(not FSDC) responsible for receiving, processing, analysing, and disseminating information relating to suspect financial transactions. Financial Intelligence Unit India (FIU IND) is also responsible for coordinating and strengthening efforts of national and international intelligence, investigation, and enforcement agencies in pursuing the global efforts against money laundering and related crimes. SFIO is a multi-disciplinary organization under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, consisting of experts in the field of accountancy, forensic auditing, law, information technology, investigation, company law, capital market and taxation for detecting and prosecuting or recommending for prosecution white collar crimes/frauds. Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) is the regulating authority for insolvency and bankruptcy proceedings in the country. It also oversees the activities of bodies such as the Insolvency Professional Agencies (IPA), Insolvency Professionals (IP) and Information Utilities (IU), Registered Valuers, and Registered Valuer Organisations. It was established as a statutory body in 2016 under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016.
With reference to the Bail provisions in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Regular bail is issued by Courts to release a person who is already under arrest and kept in police
custody
2. Interim bail is a direction issued to release a person on bail before the person is arrested
3. Anticipatory bail is issued only by Sessions Court and High Court
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
Bail is the conditional/provisional release of a person held under legal custody (in matters which are yet to be pronounced by the Court), by undertaking a promise to appear in the Court as and when required. It signifies a security/collateral deposited before the Court for release. The different types of bail in India are: Regular Bail is a direction given by the Court (any Court within the country) to release a person who is already under arrest and kept in police custody. For such Bail, a person can file an applicationunder Section 437and 439of the CrPC Anticipatory Bail is a direction issued to release a person on Bail even before the person is arrested. In this situation, there is apprehension of arrest, and the person is not arrested before the Bail is granted. For such Bail, a person can file an application under Sec. 438of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC). It is issued only by the Sessions Court and High Court. Interim Bail is the bail granted for a temporary and short period by the Court till the application seeking Anticipatory Bail or Regular Bail is pending before a Court.
Consider the following statements:
1. INS Vikrant is the first made-in-India aircraft carrier
2. It was designed and developed jointly with Russia
3. Vikrant is powered by Nuclear propulsion system
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? INS Vikrant (IAC-I) is the first aircraft carrier built in India and the first Vikrant-class aircraft carrier built by Cochin Shipyard (CSL) in Kochi, Kerala for the Indian Navy. The motto of the ship is Jayema Sam Yudhi Sprdhah which is taken from Rig Veda and is translated as “I defeat those who fight against me”.
? The name ‘INS Vikrant’ originally belonged to India’s first aircraft carrier which was acquired from the UK and played a vital role in the 1971War with Pakistan before it was decommissioned in 1997.
? Vikrant is the largest naval ship to be designed and built completely in India, and with this accomplishment, the country joins the band of nations that have demonstrated such capability with major countries like United States (US), the United Kingdom (UK), France, Russia, Italy, and China.
? Vikrant is powered by four General Electric LM2500+gas turbines on two shafts, generating over 80 megawatts (110,000hp) of power.
Consider the following pairs:
Location in News - State
1. Borjuli wild rice site - Assam
2. Hajong Tortoise Lake - Kashmir
3. Betlingshi - Punjab
4. Mahendragiri - Odisha
How many of the pairs given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? Biodiversity heritage sites are well-defined areas that are unique, ecologically fragile ecosystems with high diversity of wild and domesticated species, presence of rare and threatened species, and keystone species.
? Nallur Tamarind Grove in Bengaluru, Karnataka was the first Biodiversity Heritage Site of India, declared in 2007. India presently has 36such sites.
? The last Seven Additions to BHS were:
? Debbari or Chabimura in Tripura (September 2022)
? Betlingshib & its surroundings in Tripura (September 2022)
? Hajong Tortoise Lake in Assam (August 2022)
? Borjuli Wild Rice Site in Assam (August 2022)
? Amarkantak in Madhya Pradesh (July 2022)
? Arittapatti in Tamil Nadu (November 2022)
? Mahendragiri Hills in Odisha (November 2022)
With reference to the PM Schools for Rising India (PM-SHRI) Yojana, which of the following
statements is/are correct?
1. PM-SHRI aims at strengthening selected government and private schools
2. It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme
3. These schools will act as exemplar schools and offer mentorship to other schools
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? Pradhan Mantri Schools for Rising India (PM-SHRI) Yojana aims at strengthening the selected existing schools from amongst schools managed by Central Government/ State/ UT Government/ local bodies.
? It is a Centrally sponsored scheme for upgradation and development of more than 14500Schools across the country.
? It will showcase all components of the National Education Policy 2020 and act as exemplar schools and also offer mentorship to other schools in their vicinity. The aim of these schools will not only be qualitative teaching, learning and cognitive development, but also creating holistic and well-rounded individuals equipped with key 21st century skills. Focus will be on achieving proficiency in learning outcomes of every child in every grade.
The “World Social Protection Report” is released by which of the following organization?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
The World Social Protection Report 2020–22was released recently by International Labour Organization (ILO). The report revealed that, globally, 4.1 billion people are living without any social safety net of any kind. The report highlighted that the pandemic response was uneven and insufficient. Thereby, Covid-19 has further underscored the critical importance of achieving universal social protection. In 2020, only 46.9%of the global population benefitted from at least one protection under the ambit of social security.
With reference to the Cyber Surakshit Bharat initiative, consider the following statements:
1. The initiative was launched to spread awareness about cyber-crimes
2. It was launched by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)
3. It provides training to government officers under Public-Private Partnership (PPP) model
Which of the statements given below is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? Cyber Surakshit Bharat initiative was conceptualized with the mission to spread awareness about cyber-crime and build capacities of Chief Information Security Officers (CISOs) and frontline IT officials, across all government departments.
? It was launched by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
? The CISO training is the first-of-its-kind partnership between the Government and industry consortium under Public Private Partnership (PPP) model. It aimed at educating and enabling CISOs to understand cyber-attacks comprehensively and thoroughly, get necessary exposure in latest technologies of safeguard, and translate the benefits of a resilient e-infrastructure to individual organizations and citizens at large.
Which of the following city was nominated as the first-ever Shanghai Cooperation Organization
(SCO) “Tourism and Cultural Capital”?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? The city of Varanasi has been nominated as the first-ever SCO Tourism and Cultural Capital during the period 2022-2023at the 22nd Meeting of Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) Council of Heads of State in Samarkand, Uzbekistan on September 16, 2022.
? The nomination of Varanasi as the first ever SCO Tourism and Cultural Capital will promote tourism, cultural and humanitarian exchanges between India and the SCO member Countries. It also underlines India’s ancient civilizational links with Member States of SCO, especially the Central Asian Republics.
With reference to the political parties in India, consider the following statements:
1. Registration of political parties is governed by the provisions of the Constitution
2. Election Commission can de-register a political party on grounds of violation of the Constitution
3. Election Commission have the power to delist inactive or non-existent political parties
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? Registration of political parties is governed by the provisions of section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
? Election Commission of India has the power to register parties, but it does not have the power to deregister parties that are inactive. ECI is not empowered to de-register parties on thegrounds of violating the Constitution or breaching the undertaking given to it at the time of registration.
? A party can only be de-registered if its registration was obtained by fraud; if it is declared illegal by the Central Government; or if a party amends its internal Constitution and notifies the ECI that it can no longer abide by the Indian Constitution.
? Statement 3>> Correct
? recently, the Election Commission ordered the delisting of 86 registered unrecognised political parties it found to be “non-existent” and declared 253 others “inactive”. These 253 parties have been declared inactive, as they have not responded to the letter/notice delivered to them and have not contested a single election either to the General Assembly of a State or the Parliament Election 2014 and 2019.
With reference to FAME-II (Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of Electric Vehicles) scheme,
which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Its objective is to promote Electric Vehicles and mobility in the country through subsidies
2. It was launched as a part of National Electric Mobility Mission Plan (NEMMP)
3. The scheme covers Electric vehicles only and not Hybrid vehicles
4. It is implemented under Ministry of Heavy Industries
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? The Government notified Phase-II of Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of (Hybrid &) Electric Vehicles in India (FAME India) Scheme for a period of five years commencingfrom 1st April 2019. It proposes to give a push to Electric Vehicles (EVs) in public transport and encourage adoption of EVs by way of market creation and demand aggregation. Incentives are provided to buyers of electric vehicles in the form of an upfront reduction in the purchase price of electric vehicles.
? The scheme envisaged the holistic growth of EV industry including providing charging infrastructure and push toward greater Indigenization.
? The scheme is administered by the Ministry of Heavy Industries and was launched under the National Electric Mobility Mission Plan (NEMMP).
Statement 3>> Incorrect
? Vehicles in most segments –two wheelers, three wheelers, electric and hybrid cars and electric buses obtained the subsidy benefit of the scheme.
Operation Gearbox, sometimes seen in the news, refers to:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI) launched operation ‘Gear Box’ to stop heroin smuggling. It is conducted to detect the hidden drugs in the gear boxes. The gears from old and used gearboxes were removed after opening them and plastic packets containing the narcotic substance were placed in the created cavity and the gearboxes were refitted to avoid detection. The drug syndicate has used this unique modus operandi to conceal heroin. These packets were shipped concealing inside this metal scrap with other metal scrap so that it would go unnoticed by the authorities.
India is not a member of which of the following?
1. Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC)
2. East Asia Summit
3. Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP)
4. Organization of Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD)
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC) is a regional economic forum established in 1989 to leverage the growing interdependence of the Asia-Pacific. APEC’s 21 members aim to create greater prosperity for the people of the region by promoting balanced, inclusive, sustainable, innovative, and secure growth and by accelerating regional economic integration throughout the Asia-Pacific region. India was denied APEC membership in 2007on the ground that its economy was not integrated into the global system. The East Asia Summit (EAS) is the Indo-Pacific's premier forum for strategic dialogue. It is the only leader-led forum at which all key Indo-Pacific partners meet to discuss political, security and economic challenges facing the region, and has an important role to play in advancing closer regional cooperation. EAS has 18 members -the ten ASEAN countries along with Australia, China, India, Japan, New Zealand, the Republic of Korea, Russia, and the United States. Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) is a free trade agreement (FTA) between the ten member states of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) and its five FTA partners (Australia, China, Japan, New Zealand and the Republic of Korea). India was a member of the RCEP until 2019when it resigned due to unfavorable circumstances. Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD)is an international, intergovernmental economic organization of 38 countries with market economies that work with each other, as well as with more than 70 non-member economies to promote economic growth, prosperity, and sustainable development. Most members in the organization are high- income economies with a very high Human Development Index (HDI) and are regarded as developed countries. India is not a member of OECD.
With reference to the Organization of Islamic Cooperation (OIC), consider the following
statements:
1. OIC is the second largest inter-governmental organization after the United Nations
2. As a country with the world’s second largest Muslim population, India was recently given
membership by OIC
3. OIC endeavors to safeguard and protect the interests of the Muslim community
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? The Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC) is the second largest intergovernmental organisation after the United Nations with a membership of 57states.
? It is the collective voice of the Muslim world. It endeavours to safeguard and protect the interests of the Muslim world in the spirit of promoting international peace and harmony among various people of the world.
? was established by the First Islamic Summit Conference held in Morocco in September 1969, to marshal the Islamic world after an act ofarson at the Al-Aqsa Mosque in Jersualem.
? As a country with the world’s second largest Muslim community, India had been invited to the founding conference at Rabat in 1969 but was humiliatingly ejected at Pakistan’s behest. Indiastayed away because of a multiplicity of reasons:
? It did not want to join an organisation founded on religion.
? There was the risk that improving bilateral relations with individual member states would come under pressure in a grouping, especially on issues such as Kashmir.
Which one of the following best describes the term “friendshoring”?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? Friendshoring is the practice of relocating supply chains to countries where the risk of disruption from political chaos is low. It is when companies move their business operations –be it back-office, manufacturing, or R&D, to “friendly” countries.
? These are a group of nations with shared values. This concept is new to businesses and an abrupt change from the long-standing ideals of a globalized economy. Many recent turbulent events—from Trump’s trade wars to the Covid crisis, the Russian conflict with Ukraine, and more recently, tensions between China and Taiwan, a vital trade route is driving the change.
? So, in other words, with rising geopolitical tensions, companies are moving their business operations away from China to friendly countries to play it safe.
Which among the following are included in the eligibility criteria for availing benefits under the
Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MNREGA)?
1. Must be completed at least 18 years of age
2. Must be part of a rural household
3. Must belong to Below Poverty Line (BPL) category
4. Applicant must volunteer for unskilled labour
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? MGNREGA is one of the largest work guarantee programmes in the world launched in 2005by the Ministry of Rural development. The primary objective of the scheme is to guarantee 100days of employment in every financial year to adult members of any rural household willing to do public work-related unskilled manual work.
? The following are the eligibility criteria for receiving the benefits under NREGA scheme:
? Must be Citizen of India to seek NREGA benefits
? Job seeker has completed 18years of age at the time of application
? NREGA applicant must be part of a local household (i.e. application must be made with local Gram Panchayat)
? The applicant must volunteer for unskilled labour
? The criteria for MGNREGA eligibility has been kept simple so that a large number of rural applicants can benefit from the scheme as long as they are adults and reside in the local area.
National Maritime Heritage Complex is being built at which ancient Indian city?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
National Maritime Heritage Complex (NMHC) is being constructed at Gujarat’s Lothal. It willhave several innovative features such as Lothal mini-recreation, which will recreate Harappan architecture and lifestyle through immersive technology; four theme parks –Memorial theme park, Maritime and Navy theme park, Climate theme park, and Adventure and Amusement Theme Park. It will also house the world’s tallest lighthouse museum. Lothal was one of the southernmost sites of the Indus Valley civilization, located in the region of what is now the state of Gujarat. The meaning of Lothal (a combination of Loth and (s)thal) in Gujarati is “the mound of the dead”. It is believed to have been built in 2,200BC. Lothal was not only a major trading centre of the Indus Valley Civilisation, but it was also a symbol of India’s maritime power and prosperity. Its trade of beads, gems and ornaments reaching West Asia and Africa.Lothal had theworld’s earliest known dockyard, connecting the city to an ancient course of the Sabarmati river.
Consider the following pairs:
Space Mission - Destination
1. Artemis - Moon
2. Voyager - Venus
3. Perseverence - Mars
4. Aditya L1 - Sun
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
With Artemis missions, NASA will land the first woman and first person of colour on the Moon, using innovative technologies to explore more of the lunar surface than ever before. It stands for Acceleration, Reconnection, Turbulence, and Electrodynamics of the Moon’s Interaction with the Sun. The mission objective of the Voyager Interstellar Mission (VIM) is to extend the NASA exploration of the solar system beyond the neighborhood of the outer planets to the outer limits of the Sun's sphere of influence, and possibly beyond. Voyager spacecraft are the third and fourth spacecraft to fly beyond all the planets in our solar system. Pioneers 10 and 11 preceded Voyager in going beyond the planets in the solar system. Voyager 2is the only spacecraft to have visited all four gas giant planets -Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune. Perseverance is a Mars rover that was launched by NASA as a part of its Mars 2020 mission. The primary task of Perseverance is to seek signs of ancient life and collect samples of rock and regolith to possibly return these to Earth. Perseverance is fueled by electrical power by using heat of plutonium’s radioactive decay. Aditya-L1 is the first observatory-class space-based solar mission from India. The spacecraft will be placed in a halo orbit around the first Lagrange point, L1, of the Sun-Earth system.
With reference to the DART Mission, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. DART is a mission for asteroid study and sample return
2. The mission was launched by European Space Agency (ESA)
3. It marked humanity’s first effort in purposely changing the motion of a celestial object
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? The National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) launched its Double Asteroid Redirection Test (DART) mission in November 2021. The mission is to test the new technology to be prepared in case an asteroid heads towards Earth in the future. It is a suicide mission and the spacecraft will be completely destroyed.
? It is the first Kinetic Impactor Method of planetary defence, where a DART spacecraft will be colliding with the asteroid Dimorphos. The Kinetic Impactor Method involves sending one or more large, high-speed spacecraft into the path of an approaching near-earth object. This could deflect the asteroid into a different trajectory, steering it away from the Earth's orbital path.
? It successfully altered the asteroid’s orbit. This marks humanity’s first time purposely changing the motion of a celestial object and the first full-scale demonstration of asteroid deflection technology.
What is “Dvorak technique?, sometimes seen in the news?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
The Dvorak technique is a Cloud Pattern Recognition Technique (CPRT) based on a concept model of the development and decay of the tropical cyclone. In this methodology, available satellite images obtained from polar orbiting satellites are used to examine the features of the developing tropical storms (hurricanes, cyclones and typhoons). From the satellite images the technique helps forecasters do a pattern recognition from the observed structure of the storm, locate its eye and estimate the intensity of the storm.
Which of the following statements regarding Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) is not
correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) was established on 20th February 1997by the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997. TRAI's mission is to create and nurture conditions for growth of telecommunications in the country. TRAI regulates telecom services including fixation/revision of tariffs for telecom services which were earlier vested in the Central Government. It also aims to provide a fair and transparent policy environment which promotes a level playing field and facilitates fair competition. The TRAI consists of a Chairperson, two whole-time members and two part-time members, all of which are appointed by the Government of India. The recommendations of the TRAI are not binding upon the Central Government. If the Central Government does not accept any recommendation of the TRAI or needs modifications, it refers the recommendation back to the Authority for its reconsideration. The TRAI forwards to the Central Government its recommendation after considering the reference made by that Government within 15days.
Which of the following group of countries is/are part of the G4 countries?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
The Group of Four (G-4) countries is a grouping of Brazil, Germany, India and Japan which are aspiring to become permanent members of the UNSC. The G4 countries are supporting each other’s bids for permanent membership of the UNSC. They traditionally meet on the sidelines of the annual high-level UN General Assembly session.
eSIM Technology, often seen in the news, is mentioned in the context of:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? eSIM is an embedded SIM, which is permanently embedded in the same hardware of a regular sim card chip. Just like a traditional SIM card, an eSIM also consists of some components, which are part of a phone's internal organs.
? They also function the same way, acting as a unique identifier for telecom operators and other consumers to reach your exact smartphone when they make a call or send a text. However, being attached to the motherboard also allows re-programming, letting users switch operators without having to replace any physical SIM cards.
Consider the following statements:
1. Millets are small-seeded annual grasses that can be grown in both temperate and tropical regions
2. China is the largest producer of millets in the world
3. Millets are nutritionally superior to wheat and rice
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? Millet is a collective term referring to a number of small-seeded annual grasses that are cultivated as grain crops, primarily on marginal lands in dry areas in temperate, subtropical and tropical regions. Some of the common millets available in India are Ragi (Finger millet), Jowar (Sorghum), Sama (Little millet), Bajra (Pearl millet), and Variga (Proso millet).
? The earliest evidence for these grains has been found in Indus civilization and were one of the first plants domesticated for food.
? Millets are less expensive and nutritionally superior to wheat & rice owing to their high protein, fiber, vitamins, and minerals like iron content. Millets are also rich in calcium and magnesium. Millets can provide nutritional security and act as a shield against nutritional deficiency, especially among children and women. Its high iron content can fight high prevalence of anemia in India women of reproductive age and infants.
? India is the largest producer of millet in the world. It Accounts for 20 % of global production and 80%of Asia’s production.
? India, Nigeria and China are the largest producers of millets in the world, accounting for more than 55%of the global production.
With reference to Capital punishment, consider the following statements:
1. Capital punishment is not a legally backed instrument in India
2. Article 21 of the Constitution implies that a State can deprive a person of his life by framing a fair
law
3. Death penalty can be pardoned or commutated by the President or the Governor
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
Capital punishment is a legal penalty ordered by the Court against the person who has committed a certain crime that is prohibited by the law. In India, it is only given in the rarest of the rare cases as per the Indian Penal Code and Code of Criminal Procedure. Hence, it is a legally backed instrument used by the state to take an individual’s life. Certain offences under Indian Penal Code, for which the offenders can be sentenced to punishment of death are Murder (Section 302), Dacoity with murder (Section 396), Criminal Conspiracy (Section 120B), Waging war against the Government of India or attempting to do so (Section 121), Abatement of mutiny (Section 132) and others. It can be commutated into life imprisonment or pardoned by the President under Article 72of Indian Constitution. Article 21 of the Indian Constitution ensures the Fundamental Right to life and liberty for all persons. It adds no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law. This has been legally construed to mean if there is a procedure, which is fair and valid, then the state by framing a law can deprive a person of his life.
The multilateral anti-terror exercise „Manesar Anti-Terror 2022? was conducted under the aegis of:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? The National Security Guard is hosting the multinational JATE ‘Manesar Anti-Terror 2022’ under the framework of the SCO Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS) at the NSG Manesar Garrison. JATE is an annual counter-terrorist exercise held within the framework of the SCO RATS.
? The exercise is aimed at exchanging expertise and best practices and build synergy between the counterterrorism forces of the SCO RATS member countries to enhance capabilities for conducting anti-terrorist operations and countering other security threats collectively.
In the context of Production Linked Incentives (PLI) Scheme, which of the following statements
is/are correct?
1. PLI scheme provide incentives on incremental sales from products manufactured in domestic units
only
2. It aims to reduce the import bills and reduce India?s dependence on China
3. It provides incentives to domestic companies only
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? PLI scheme was conceived to scale up domestic manufacturing capability, accompanied by higher import substitution and employment generation. The Government introduced this scheme to reduce India’s dependence on China and other foreign countries. It supports the labor-intensive sectors and aims to increase the employment ratio in India. This scheme works to reduce the import bills and boost domestic production.
? The government has set aside Rs 1.97 lakh crore under the PLI schemes for various sectors. The incentives, calculated on the basis of incremental sales, range from as low as 1%for the electronics and technology products to as high as 20%for the manufacturing of critical key starting drugs and certain drug intermediaries.
? So far, the government has announced PLI schemes for 14sectors including automobile and auto components, electronics and IT hardware, telecom, pharmaceuticals, solar modules, metals and mining, textiles and apparel, white goods, drones, and advanced chemistry cell batteries.
? However, PLI Yojana invites foreign companies to set up their units in India and encourages domestic enterprises to expand their production units.
With reference to the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA), consider the following
statements:
1. Under the Act, the Ministry of Defense can declare an organization as an „unlawful association? or
as a „terrorist organization?
2. The Act includes the provision of designating an individual as a terrorist
3. Both Indian and foreign nationals can be charged under this Act
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? UAPA is India’s main law against terrorism and terrorist activities. It allows the government to declare an organisation an “unlawful association” or a “terrorist organisation”, which is often colloquially described as a “ban” on the organisations. In August 2019, Parliament cleared the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Amendment Bill, 2019 to designate individuals as terrorists on certain grounds provided in the Act.
? Under UAPA, both Indian and foreign nationals can be charged. It will be applicable to the offenders in the same manner, even if crime is committed on a foreign land, outside India.
? Ministry of Home Affairs deals with the provisions of UAPA Act.
With reference to the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act (MTP) and the recent Supreme Court
ruling, which of the following statements is not correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act, 1971 act allowed pregnancy termination by a medical practitioner in two stages: A single doctor's opinion was necessary for abortions up to 12 weeks after conception. For pregnancies between 12to 20weeks old, the opinion of two doctors was required.
? In 2021, Parliament amended the law to allow for abortions based on the advice of one doctor for pregnancies up to 20 weeks. The modified law needs the opinion of two doctors for pregnancies between 20and 24weeks.
? The MTP Act of 1971 and its Rules of 2003 prohibit unmarried women who are between 20 weeks to 24 weeks pregnant to abort with the help of registered medical practitioners. In a landmark judgement, the country’s apex court said that the rights available to married women under the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971, to abort a fetus will also be available to unmarried women. Court said that the “artificial distinction” between married and unmarried women cannot be sustained, and women must have the autonomy to have free exercise of these rights.
? Section 312 of the Indian Penal Code holds intentionally causing a miscarriage as a criminal offence. Under IPC Section 313, a person who causes the miscarriage without the consent of the pregnant woman, irrespective of the stage of her pregnancy, shall be punished with life imprisonment or a jail term extending up to 10years, as well as a fine.
What was the reason for which the country Burkina Faso was in the news recently?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
Recently, the President of Burkina Faso, Paul-Henri Damiba announced his resignation following violence in the volatile West African nation after the military government was overthrown by a group of soldiers in the second coup in around eight months. Landlocked Burkina Faso, one of West Africa’s poorest countries despite being a gold producer, has experienced numerous coups since independence from France in 1960.
In the context of Biomass Cofiring technology, consider the following statements:
1. It involves combustion of Coal and Biomass in the same equipment at thermal plants
2. It helps to reduce GHG emissions from power plants
3. This technology would enable India to reduce the problem of farm stubble burning
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
Biomass co-firing is the practice of substituting a part of the fuel with biomass at coal thermal plants. Coal and biomass are combusted together in boilers that have been designed to burn coal. For this purpose, the existing coal power plant has to be partly reconstructed and retrofitted. Co-firing is an option to convert biomass to electricity, in an efficient and clean way, and to reduce GHG (Greenhouse Gases) emissions of the power plant. Biomass co-firing is a globally accepted cost-effective method for decarbonising a coal fleets. Biomass co-firing is an effective way to curb emissions from open burning of crop residue, it also decarbonised the process of electricity generation using coal. It can help cut emissions from combustion of fossil fuels, address India’s burgeoning problem of farm stubble burning to some extent, reduce waste burden while also creating jobs in rural areas.
Consider the following pairs:
Institution : Functions under
1.National Investigation Agency (NIA) : Ministry of Home Affairs
2.Enforcement Directorate (ED) : Ministry of Finance
3.Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) : Ministry of Personnel
4.Research & Analysis Wing (RAW) : Prime Minister Office
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? National Investigation Agency(NIA) is the Central Counter-Terrorism Law Enforcement Agency of India mandated to investigate all the offences affecting the sovereignty, security, and integrity of India. It was constituted under the National Investigation Agency (NIA) Act, 2008. The agency is empowered to deal with the investigation of terror related crimes across states without special permission from the states under written proclamation from the Ministry of Home Affairs.
? The Central Vigilance Commission is the apex vigilance institution, free of control from any executive authority, monitoring all vigilance activity under the Central Government and advising various authorities in Central Government organizations in planning, executing, reviewing, and reforming their vigilance work. The CVC is not controlled by any Ministry/Department. It is an independent body which is only responsible for the Parliament.
? Directorate of Enforcement (ED) is a law enforcement agency and economic intelligence agency responsible for enforcing economic laws and fighting economic crime in India. It is part
of the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance. The prime objective of the Enforcement Directorate is the enforcement of two key Acts of the Government of India namely, the Foreign Exchange Management Act 1999(FEMA) and the Prevention of Money Laundering Act 2002(PMLA).
? Research and Analysis Wing (R&AW) is the foreign intelligence agency of India. The agency's primary function is gathering foreign intelligence, counterterrorism, and counter-proliferation, advising Indian policymakers, and advancing India's foreign strategic interests. It is also involved in the security of India's nuclear programme. The head of R&AW is designated as the Secretary (Research) in the Cabinet Secretariat and is under the authority of the Prime Minister of India without parliamentary oversight. On an administrative basis, the Director reports to the Cabinet Secretary, who reports to the Prime Minister.
With reference to the Minerals Security Partnership, which of the following statements is/are
correct?
1. It is China-led initiative to bolster critical mineral supply chains
2. India is a member of this partnership
3. It aims to catalyze investment form governments and private sector adhering to highest
environmental standards
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? Minerals Security Partnership (MSP) is an initiative by the United States to bolster critical mineral supply chains.
? The goal of the MSP is to ensure that critical minerals are produced, processed, and recycled in a manner that supports the ability of countries to realize the full economic development benefit of their geological endowments. Focus would be on the supply chains of minerals such as Cobalt, Nickel, Lithium and also the 17“rare earth” minerals.
? The US and 10 partners —Australia, Canada, Finland, France, Germany, Japan, the Republic of Korea (South Korea), Sweden, the United Kingdom, and the European Commission —have come together to form the MSP.
? MSP will help catalyze investment from governments and the private sector for strategic opportunities across the full value chain that adhere to the highest environmental, social, and governance standards.
The draft “National Credit Framework” was recently unveiled by which of the following?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
The Ministry of Education recently unveiled a draft 'National Credit Framework' (NCrF) which aims to bring the entire education system, from school to university, into the academic ‘credit’ regime. According to the framework, an academic year will be defined by the number of hours a student puts in. Credits will be provided to them accordingly at the end of each academic year. The framework has been formulated under the University Grants Commission (Establishment and Operation of Academic Bank of Credits in Higher Education) Regulations, notified in July 2021. The credit transfer mechanism will also enable a student/ learner to enter and exit the educational ecosystem, both general and vocational, at any point of time. NCrF will seamlessly integrate the credits earned through school education, higher education and vocational and skill education by encompassing the National Higher Education Qualification Framework (NHEQF), National Skills Qualification Framework (NSQF) and National School Education Qualification Framework (NSEQF).
India’s first “flex fuel” car was unveiled recently. In this context, consider the following statements:
1. Flex Fuel cars have an internal combustion engine which can run on a mixture of fuels
2. These cars are capable of running on 100% bio-ethanol
3. These cars can lower the emission of harmful pollutants such as carbon monoxide and sulphur
dioxide
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? A flex fuel, or flexible-fuel vehicle (FFV) has an internal combustion engine (ICE), but unlike a regular petrol or diesel vehicle, this can run on more than one type of fuel, or even a mixture of fuels. Flex fuel vehicles (FFV) are capable of running on 100per cent petrol or 100per cent bio-ethanol or a combination of both.
? Flex-fuel vehicles are distinguished from bi-fuel vehicles, where two fuels are stored in separate tanks and the engine runs on one fuel at a time, for example, compressed natural gas (CNG), liquefied petroleum gas (LPG), or hydrogen.
? The use of ethanol blending sharply lowers harmful pollutants such as carbon monoxide, sulphur, and carbon and nitrogen oxides. It will deleverage the country’s dependence on oil imports for transportation. Many flex fuel vehicles have improved acceleration performance when operating on higher ethanol blends.
Consider the following statements:
1. Grameen Udyami Project is a multi-skilling programme aimed at training tribal students
2. It is supported and funded by the National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC)
3. NSDC is an entity whose majority share is owned by private sector
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
Grameen Udyami Project is a unique multiskilling project, funded by NSDC that aims to train 450 tribal students in Madhya Pradesh and Jharkhand. The six states that are carrying out the project are Gujarat, Maharashtra, Rajasthan, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, and Jharkhand. The endeavor is to multi-skill India’s youth and impart functional skills to them for enabling livelihoods. The second phase of the Grameen Udyami Project was launched by National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) in partnership with Seva Bharti and Yuva Vikas Society. It was launched and funded by National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC). The project is being implemented by the Yuva Vikas Society, through Seva Bharti Kendra in Ranchi. National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) is a non-profit public limited company established on July 31, 2008, under Section 25 of the Companies Act, 1956. The Ministry of Finance established NSDC as a Public Private Partnership (PPP) model. The Government of India, through the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE), owns 49%of NSDC, while the private sector owns the remaining 51%.
With reference to the “International Monetary and Financial Committee” (IMFC), which of the
following statements is/are correct?
1. It is a committee set up by the Financial Stability Board (FSB) and International Finance
Corporation (IFC)
2. It traditionally meets once in two years
3. It advises the International Monetary Fund (IMF) on matters of common concern affecting the
global economy
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? International Monetary and Financial Committee (IMFC) is the Ministerial-level committee of the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
? It meets twice a year, once during the Fund-Bank Annual Meetings in October and once during the Spring Meetings in April.
? IMFC discusses the management of the international monetary and financial system. It advises the IMF on any other matters of common concern affecting the global economy. Although the IMFC has no formal decision-making powers, in practice, it has become a key instrument for providing strategic direction to the work and policies of the IMF.
? IMFC has 24 members, drawn from the pool of 189 governors, and represents all member countries. India is one of the current members. It operates on consensus, including on the selection of its chairman. A number of international institutions, including the World Bank, participate as observers in the IMFC’s meetings.
Which of the following statements regarding Digital Banking Units (DBU) is not correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? A Digital Banking Unit is a specialised fixed point business unit or hub, set up by scheduled commercial banks, housing certain minimum digital infrastructure for delivering digital banking products and services as well as servicing existing financial products and services digitally in self-service mode at any time.
? The DBUs are being set up with the objective to ensure the benefits of digital banking reach every nook and corner of the country and will cover all the States and Union territories. DBUs will enable those who do not have Information and Communications Technology (ICT) infrastructure to access banking services digitally. They will also assist those who are not tech savvy to adopt digital banking.
? DBU will provide banking services including cash deposit & withdrawal 24x7.
? DBUs do not have legal personality and are not licensed under Banking Regulation Act, 1949. Legally, they are equivalent to “banking outlets” i.e., branches.
The objective of WISER Program, launched by Indo-German Science & Technology Centre
(IGSTC), is to:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? WISER is one of-its-kind programme, launched to promote women in the field of research and development by lateral entry. It was launched by Indo-German Science & Technology Centre (IGSTC) to encourage women researchers in R&D projects.
? IGSTC-WISER intends to build scientific capacity, retain and promote women researchers in India/Germany by utilising complementary expertise in science, technology, innovation, and research partnerships.
Consider the following situation:
“A 5-judge bench of High Court gave a unanimous verdict on a particular case. When the case was
referred to a larger bench while considering its review petition, the new verdict given is against the
earlier judgement with a 4:3 majority.”
In such a situation, which of the following scenario holds to be correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? The Supreme Court of India has held that a judgment delivered by a larger Bench will prevail over the decision of a smaller Bench, irrespective of the number of judges constituting the majority in the larger Bench. It means that a nine-judge Bench verdict with 5:4 majority will prevail over a unanimous verdict of a seven-judge Bench.
? General principle: The decision of a superior court will always be binding on a lower court and that the decision of a larger Bench will always hold force over a smaller Bench of the same court. This canon of law seeks to ensure that there is stability and consistency in the decisions of the court. This principle stems from the assumption that a Bench with more strength is more likely to arrive at a correct decision.
With reference to Agni Prime (Agni-P) Missile, consider the following statements:
1. Agni-P is an indigenously developed cruise missile
2. It is a two-stage solid propellant missile
3. It can deliver one-tonne warheads about 7500 km away
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
Agni Prime is the latest and sixth variant of the Agni series missiles (under IGMDP -Integrated Guided Missile Development Program). It is an indigenously developed new generation medium-range ballistic missile. With multiple independently targetable re-entry vehicles, the missile is capable of delivering a number of warheads at separate locations at a distance of 1,000 -2,000 km. The 10.5-metre- tall missile with a diameter of 1.2metre can carry warheads up to 1.5tonne. It can perform high maneuvers while homing in on targets. Agni-P is a new generation advanced variant of Agni class of missiles. It is a two-stage canisterised solid propellant missile with dual redundant navigation and guidance system.
Consider the following pairs:
River - Flows through
1. Sukapaika - Maharashtra
2. Thamirabarani - Tamil Nadu
3. Kushiyara - Uttarakhand
How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? Sukapaika is one of the several distributaries of the mighty Mahanadi river in Odisha. It is an important system of the Mahanadi to control floodwater and maintain the flow in the river as well as the Bay of Bengal. The Sukapaika River which stopped flowing 70 years ago, is set to be rejuvenated as the Odisha government has started working on its revival plan following a recent direction from the National Green Tribunal (NGT).
? The Thamiraparani is the only perennial (continuous flow of water) river in Tamil Nadu. This is the shortest river in the state, the Thamirabarani starts in Pothigai hills of the Western Ghats in the Ambasamudram taluk, flows through Tirunelveli and Thoothukudi districts and empties at Korkai into the Gulf of Mannar (Bay of Bengal). It thus originates and ends in the same state. The districtadministration of Tirunelveli in Tamil Nadu along with Ashoka Trust for Research in Ecology and the Environment (ATREE), a non-profit Organisation, are using a ‘hyper local’ approach called TamiraSES to restore the Thamirabarani River.
? The Kushiyara Riveris a distributary river in Bangladesh and Assam. It forms on the India- Bangladesh border as a branch of the Barak River when the Barak separates into the Kushiyara and Surma. The waters of the Kushiyara pick up tributaries from Manipur, Mizoram, and Assam. Recently, India and Bangladesh have finalised the text of the Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) on interim water sharing of the Kushiyara river.
Consider the following statements regarding Like Minded Developing Countries (LMDC):
1. It is a group organized by themselves as a block negotiators in international organizations like UN
and WTO
2. India, China and Pakistan are members of this group
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? The Like Minded-Group of Developing Countries (LMDC) is a group of developing countries who organise themselves as a block negotiators in international organizations such as the United Nations and the World Trade Organization. They represent more than 50%of the world's population.
? LMDC comprises around 25developing countries from Asia and other regions. It includes countries like India, China, Pakistan, Saudi Arabia, Bangladesh, among others.
With reference to the Currency System in India, consider the following statements:
1. Any change in design of a currency note must be approved by both RBI and Central government
2. RBI is the sole currency issuing authority in India
3. Central government is the issuing authority of coins
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
The Reserve bank of India has the sole right to issue currency notes of various denominations except one-rupee notes under Section 22 of Reserve bank of India Act. The one rupee note, and coins are issued by ministry of finance and it bears the signature of Finance Secretary. RBI’s Department of Currency Management, currently headed by Deputy Governor, has the responsibility of administering the core function of currency management.The Coinage Act, 2011gives the central government the power to design and mint coins in various denominations. The role of the RBI is limited to the distribution of coins that are supplied by the central government. The government decides on the quantity of coins to be minted on the basis of indents received from the RBI on a yearly basis. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the Central Government decide the changes in the design and form of bank notes and coins. Any change in design of a currency note has to be approved by the RBI’s Central Board and the central government. Changes in the design of coins are the prerogative of the central government.
With reference to Indian history, “Sugandha Devi”, “Yashovati” and “Didda” were:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? Kashmir was ruled by many women in ancient and medieval times. Some of them proved more capable than their male predecessors and successors. Kashmir’s Hindu period actually saw the rise of many sovereign queens who proved their mettle.
? In Kalhana's Rajatarangini, three well-known female rulers are discussed: "Yasovati of the Gonda dynasty, Sugandha (904-906 AD) of theUtpala dynasty, and Didda (980-1003AD) of the Lohara dynasty."
? Queen Regent Sugandha Devi ruled Kashmir for 28 years (855-883 AD) and history sees it the ‘golden age’. She accompanied her husband Shankaravarman, the son of famous Hindu king Avantivarman,when he was killed by a soldier in the battlefield.
? Rani Didda’s (958-1003 CE) rule represents the peak of women’s power in Kashmir. She is sometimes called the Catherine of Kashmir, referring to the ruthless Catherine the Great of Russia who ruled long and well with the help of her favorites whom she periodically purged. In spite of a leg disability and her gender, Didda was able to rule Kashmir with an iron hand for more than four decades.
? Yashovati was a consort of King Damodara who was killed in the battlefield. Eventually, his pregnant consort was enthroned and ruled as a queen regent after birth of her son. Her period is recorded as successful.
Consider the following statements:
1. As per the Constitution, the primary duty to prevent and investigate crimes and prosecute criminals
in India is vested with the Union Ministry of Home Affairs
2. The responsibility of conducting decadal Census rests with the Ministry of Home Affairs
3. Department of Border Management functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? 'Police' and 'Public Order' are State subjects under the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution of India and therefore, it is the primary duty of the State Governments to prevent, detect, register and investigate crime and prosecute the criminals. Central Government, however, supplements the efforts of the State Governments by providing them financial assistance for modernization of their Police Forces.
? Statement 2 and 3>> Correct
? The responsibility of conducting the decadal census rests with the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India, Ministry of Home Affairs.
? The Ministry of Home Affairs has the following constituent Departments:
? Department of Border Management -deals with management of borders, including coastal borders
? Department of Internal Security -dealing with police, law and order and rehabilitation
? Department of Jammu, Kashmir, and Ladakh Affairs
? Department of Home -dealing with the notification of assumption of office by the President and Vice-president, notification of appointment of the Prime Minister and other Ministers, etc.
? Department of Official Language -dealing with the implementation of the provisions of the Constitution relating to official languages and the provisions of the Official Languages Act,
1963
? Department of States -dealing with centre-state relations, inter-state relations, union territories and freedom fighters' pension.
With respect to Red Mud, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Red Mud is generated during the aluminium production process
2. It can be used in construction purposes
3. India imports red mud from China in huge quantities
4. It is considered to be toxic due to its extreme alkalinity and heavy element leaching
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
Statement 1 and 4>> Correct
? Red Mud is the waste generated in the Bayer process of alumina production from bauxite. It is also known as bauxite residue.
? Red Mud is considered to be toxic due to its extreme alkalinity and heavy element leaching. The clay-lined ponds in which red mud is stored often break out and pollute soil, groundwater, and air and become fatal for both humans and wildlife.
Statement 2and 3>> Incorrect
? Red mud is one of the underutilized industrial wastes that is getting accumulated over the years due to an increase in alumina production as well as inadequate technologies for its large-scale utilization. The red mud contains 30–55%of Fe2O3, which is suitable for attenuating high-energy ionizing radiations like X-and gamma rays.
“Glyphosate”, exposure to which can cause adverse health impacts including cancer, is present in
which of the following?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
?Glyphosate is an Herbicide used for killing or inhibiting the growth of unwanted plants, such as residential or agricultural weeds and invasive species. Its scientific name is N- (phosphonomethyl) glycine under the International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry (IUPAC) system of nomenclature. It is applied to the leaves of plants to kill weeds.
? Health impacts of glyphosate range from cancer, reproductive and developmental toxicity to neurotoxicity and immunotoxicity. Symptoms include irritation, swelling, burning of the skin, oral and nasal discomfort, unpleasant taste and blurred vision. Some 35countries have banned or restricted the use of glyphosate.
? Glyphosate was highly accepted by the tea planters in the past two decades. It has a very good market size in the tea sector of West Bengal and Assam. Presently, its consumption is highest in Maharashtra as it is becoming a key herbicide in sugarcane, maize and many fruit crops.
Which one of the following statements best describes the technology “Xenoplantation”?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? Xenotransplantation is any procedure that involves the transplantation, implantation, or infusion into a human recipient of either live cells, tissues, or organs from a nonhuman animal source, or
? Human body fluids, cells, tissues, or organs that have had ex vivo (outside of the living body) contact with live non-human animal cells, tissues, or organs.
? One of the biggest obstacles to transplantation is organ rejection. In a recent heart transplant from pig to human, gene-editing was adopted to remove a sugar in its cells that’s responsible for that hyper-fast organ rejection.
The Prime Minister of India recently inaugurated the Statue of Prosperity, which is dedicated to
Nadaprabhu Kempegowda. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Kempegowda?
1. He was the chieftain under the Kakatiya Empire
2. He is widely regarded as the founder of Warangal city
3. He abolished the practice of cutting fingers of an unmarried woman during a custom known as
"Bandi Devaru?
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? Nadaprabhu Kempegowda was born in 1513 in a village near Yelahanka. He was the chieftain under the Vijayanagara Empire of the 16th century. He is an iconic figure among Vokkaligas, Karnataka’s second most dominant community after Lingayats.
? He is widely acknowledged as the founder of Bengaluru, Karnataka. It is said that he conceived the idea of a new city while hunting with his minister, and later marked its territory by erecting towers in four corners of the proposed city. He is also credited with having developed around 1,000lakes in the city to cater to its drinking and agricultural needs.
? Statement 3>> Correct
? Kempegowda has been credited for abolishing the practice of cutting the fingers of the left hand of an unmarried woman during a custom known as ‘Bandi Devaru’, an important custom of Morasu Vokkaligas.
Consider the following statements:
1. Green bonds are issued to exclusively to fund projects that have positive environmental or climate
benefits
2. Sovereign Green Bonds Framework has been formulated by the Environment Ministry recently
3. No Indian entity has issued green bond till now
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
Green bonds are issued by companies, countries, and multilateral organisations to exclusively fund projects that have positive environmental or climate benefits and provide investors with fixed income payments. The projects can include renewable energy, clean transportation, and green buildings, among others.
Statement 2and 3>> Incorrect
Recently, the Union Minister for Finance & Corporate Affairs has approved the final Sovereign Green Bonds Framework of India. It will further strengthen India’s commitment towards its Nationally Determined Contribution (NDCs) targets, adopted under the Paris Agreement. According to the Climate Bonds Initiative, an international organization working to mobilize global capital for climate action, Indian entities have issued green bonds for over USD 18 billion. India’s first green bond was issued by Yes Bank in 2015.
With reference to the developments in Indian Space sector, which of the following statements
is/are correct?
1. Vikram-S is India’s first privately developed launch vehicle
2. It is a single stage solid fueled sub-orbital launch vehicle
3. It was developed by the start-up Skyroot Aerospace under Mission Prarambh
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
Space technology startup Skyroot Aerospace made history by sending India’s first privately developed rocket Vikram-S into space under the ‘Prarambh’ Mission. The Vikram-S rocket is a single-stage sub-orbital launch vehicle which would carry three customer payloads. It has been built using advanced technologies including carbon composite structures and 3D-printed components. It would help test and validate the majority of the technologies in the Vikram series of space launch vehicles. The Prarambh mission is aimed at carrying three payloads into space, including a 2.5-kilogram payload that has been developed by students from several countries. The Prarambh mission and the Vikram-S rocket were developed by the Hyderabad-based startup with extensive support from Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and IN-SPACe (Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre).
Which one of the following statements best describes the term „Vostro account?, sometimes seen
in the news?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? Vostro account is an account that a domestic bank holds for a foreign bank in the domestic bank’s currency. It allows the customers to deposit money in the bank's account in another bank.
? There are two kinds of accounts: Vostro and Nostro
? Both Vostro and Nostro are technically the same type of account, with the difference being who opens the account and where. So, if an Indian bank like the SBI wants to open an account in the United States, it will get in touch with a bank in the US, which will open a Nostro account and accept payments for SBI in dollars.
? The account opened by the Indian bank in the US will be a Nostro account for the Indian bank, while for the US bank, the account will be considered a Vostro account.
With reference to the Geographical Indication (GI) tag products, match the following pairs:
GI Product - State
1. Gamocha A. Gujarat
2. Kalanamak rice B. Uttar Pradesh
3. Patan Patola C. Assam
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
A ‘gamocha’ literally means a towel and is a handwoven rectangular cotton piece of cloth with red borders and different designs and motifs. It is traditionally offered to elders and guests as a mark of respect and honor by Assamese people. It is an integral part of all socio-religious ceremonies in the state and is considered as an Assamese identity and pride. Kalanamak is a traditional variety of paddy with black husk and strong fragrance. It is considered a gift from Lord Buddha to the people of Sravasti when he visited the region after enlightenment. It is grown in 11 districts of the Terai region of north-eastern Uttar Pradesh and in Nepal. Patola is a double ikat woven fabric, usually made from silk in Patan (North Gujarat). Ikat is a method of tie-dyeing the warp or weft before the cloth is woven. Patola is woven on primitive hand-operated harness looms made out of rosewood and bamboo strips.
With reference to the Global Offshore Wind Alliance (GOWA), consider the following statements:
1. It aims to increase the global capacity of offshore wind power generation
2. It was set up by the International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA)
3. India is a member of the alliance
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? Antimicrobial resistance is the resistance acquired by any microorganism (bacteria, viruses, fungi, parasite, etc.) against antimicrobial drugs (such as antibiotics, antifungals, antivirals, antimalarial, and anthelmintic) that are used to treat infections. As a result, standard treatments become ineffective, infections persist and may spread to others.
? Microorganisms that develop antimicrobial resistance are sometimes referred to as “superbugs”. The World Health Organization (WHO) has identified AMR as one of the top ten threats to global health.
? According to the Global Research on Antimicrobial Resistance (GRAM) report, 1.27 million people died in 2019 as a direct result of AMR (Anti-Microbial Resistance). The death due to AMR is now a leading cause of death worldwide, higher than HIV/AIDS or malaria.
? Reasons for spread of AMR are -natural resistance in certain types of bacteria, genetic mutation. The misuse of antimicrobials in medicine and inappropriate use in agriculture; contamination around pharmaceutical manufacturing sites where untreated waste releases large amounts of active antimicrobials into the environment.
? Resistance can appear spontaneously because of random mutations, or by more commonly following gradual build-up over time, and because of misuse of antibiotics or antimicrobials. The resistance is generally slow to reverse or is irreversible. This urges that the interventions to stop the development of resistance should be implemented early before resistance becomes a problem.
In the context of Anti-Microbial Resistance (AMR) prevalence globally, consider the following
statements:
1. Antimicrobial Resistance can be acquired by any microorganism including bacteria, virus and fungi
2. Resistance in microbe cane be developed via genetic mutation
3. Death due to AMR is now a leading cause of death worldwide
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? Antimicrobial resistance is the resistance acquired by any microorganism (bacteria, viruses, fungi, parasite, etc.) against antimicrobial drugs (such as antibiotics, antifungals, antivirals, antimalarial, and anthelmintic) that are used to treat infections. As a result, standard treatments become ineffective, infections persist and may spread to others.
? Microorganisms that develop antimicrobial resistance are sometimes referred to as “superbugs”. The World Health Organization (WHO) has identified AMR as one of the top ten threats to global health.
? According to the Global Research on Antimicrobial Resistance (GRAM) report, 1.27 million people died in 2019 as a direct result of AMR (Anti-Microbial Resistance). The death due to AMR is now a leading cause of death worldwide, higher than HIV/AIDS or malaria.
? Reasons for spread of AMR are -natural resistance in certain types of bacteria, genetic mutation. The misuse of antimicrobials in medicine and inappropriate use in agriculture; contamination around pharmaceutical manufacturing sites where untreated waste releases large amounts of active antimicrobials into the environment.
? Resistance can appear spontaneously because of random mutations, or by more commonly following gradual build-up over time, and because of misuse of antibiotics or antimicrobials. The resistance is generally slow to reverse or is irreversible. This urges that the interventions to stop the development of resistance should be implemented early before resistance becomes a problem.
The “Digital Shakti” initiative, sometimes seen in the news, is associated with:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? Digital Shakti started in June 2018 to help women across the nation to raise the awareness level on the digital front. It is helping women in reporting & redressal mechanisms, data privacy
and usage of technology for their benefits.
? National Commission for Women (NCW) has recently launched the fourth phase of the Digital Shakti Campaign. NCW launched it in collaboration with CyberPeace Foundation and Meta.
? Digital Shakti 4.0 is focused on making women digitally skilled and aware to stand up against any illegal/inappropriate activity online. It aims to ensure safe cyber spaces for women.
The country of Ukraine is bordered by which of the following?
1. Belarus
2. Georgia
3. Poland
4. Slovakia
5. Turkey
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? Ukraine is a country in Eastern Europe. It is the second-largest European country after Russia, which it borders to the east and northeast. Prior to the ongoing Russian invasion, it was the
eighth-most populous country in Europe, with a population of around 41million people.
? It is also bordered by Belarus to the north; by Poland, Slovakia, and Hungary to the west; and by Romania and Moldova to the southwest; with a coastline along the Black Sea and the Sea of Azov to the south and southeast.
With reference to the Indian History, consider the following statements:
1. Battle of Saraighat was fought between the Mughals and the Ahom kingdom
2. It was a naval battle fought on the Brahmaputra river
3. The army led by Lachit Barphukan defeated the Mughal forces
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? Battle of Saraighat was a naval battle fought in 1671 between the Mughal Empire (led by the Kachwaha raja, Ram Singh I), and the Ahom Kingdom (led by Lachit Borphukan) on the Brahmaputra river at Saraighat, now in Guwahati, Assam, India.
? Although weaker, the Ahom Army defeated the Mughal Army by massive army, clever diplomatic negotiations to buy time, guerrilla tactics, psychological warfare, military intelligence and by exploiting the sole weakness of the Mughal forces—its navy.
? Battle of Saraighat was the last battle in the last major attempt by the Mughals to extend their empire into Assam. Though the Mughals managed to regain Guwahati briefly later after Borphukan deserted it, the Ahoms wrested control in the Battle of Itakhuli in 1682and maintained it till the end of their rule.
Consider the following statements:
1. MAARG Portal is the National Mentorship Platform created by Startup India
2. It was launched by the Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship
3. India has recently become the largest start-up ecosystem in the world
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
Mentorship, Advisory, Assistance, Resilience and Growth (MAARG) portal is the National Mentorship Platform by Startup India. It is a one-stop platform to facilitate mentorship for startups across diverse sectors, functions, stages, geographies, and backgrounds.
? It was launched by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
? Statement 3>> Incorrect
? In 2022, India has become the 3rd largest start-up ecosystem in the world after the US and China. The country also has the third-highest number of unicorns.
Why is a plant called ‘Senna Spectabilis’ often mentioned in news?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? Senna spectabilis is a deciduous tree native to tropical areas of America. It grows up to 15to 20metres in a short period of time and distributes thousands of seeds after flowering.
? The thick foliage of the tree arrests the growth of other indigenous tree and grass species. Thus, it causes food shortage for the wildlife population, especially herbivores. It also adversely affect the germination and growth of the native species.
? The plant has invaded forest areas of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve (NBR), including the Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary, the adjacent Bandipur and Nagarhole tiger reserves in Karnataka and Mudumalai tiger reserve in Tamil Nadu.
With reference to the Integrated Ombudsman Scheme, which of the following statements is not
correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? Ombudsman is a government official who deals with complaints made by ordinary people against public organizations. This concept of Ombudsman arrived from Sweden. It means an officer appointed by the Legislature to handle complaints against a service or administrative authority.
? Integrated Ombudsman Scheme integrates the existing three Ombudsman schemes of RBI namely, (i) the Banking Ombudsman Scheme, 2006; (ii) the Ombudsman Scheme for Non-
Banking Financial Companies, 2018; and (iii) the Ombudsman Scheme for Digital Transactions, 2019.
? The scheme is jurisdiction neutral and a centralised receipt and processing centre has been set-up in Chandigarh for initial handling of complaints in any language
? The Scheme, framed by the Reserve Bank in exercise of the powers conferred on it under Section 35A of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949
? It will provide cost-free redress of customer complaints involving deficiency in services rendered by entities regulated by RBI, if not resolved to the satisfaction of the customers or not replied within a period of 30days by the regulated entity.
? The Scheme also includes under its ambit Non-Scheduled Primary Co-operative Banks with a deposit size of
?50 crore and above. The Scheme adopts ‘One Nation One Ombudsman’ approach by making the RBI Ombudsman mechanism jurisdiction neutral.
Which of the following countries are members of ASEAN Defence Ministers? Meeting Plus
(ADMM-Plus)?
1. China
2. USA
3. Russia
4. India
5. Pakistan
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? ASEAN Defence Ministers’ Meeting (ADMM) an annual meeting of Defence Ministers of 10 ASEAN countries and eight dialogue partner countries. It aims to promote mutual trust and confidence between defence establishments through greater dialogue and transparency.
? ADMM-Plus countries include ten ASEAN Member States (Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, Brunei, Vietnam, Laos, Myanmar and Cambodia) and eight Plus countries, namely Australia, China, India, Japan, New Zealand, Republic of Korea, Russian Federation, and the United States.
‘Ambition on Melting Ice on Sea-level Rise and Mountain Water Resources’ group, focusing on the
impact of Cryosphere loss was emerged at:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
Meeting at UNFCCC COP27 in Sharm El-Sheikh, Egypt on 16 November 2022, a broad coalition of 20governments —led by the two polar and mountain nations of Chile and Iceland —joined together to create a new high-level group ‘Ambition on Melting Ice: On Sea-level Rise and Mountain Water Resources’. The “AMI” group aims to ensure impacts of cryosphere loss are understood by political leaders and the public, and not only within mountain and polar regions, but throughout the planet.
Consider the following statements:
1. India Plastics Pact is a joint initiative between the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) and WWF-
India
2. It aims to achieve a target of 100% of plastic packaging to be reusable or compostable by 2030
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? India Plastics Pact is a joint initiative between the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) and World-Wide Fund for Nature-India (WWF India), and supported by WRAP, an international NGO specializing in tackling plastics pollution.
? It launched the India Plastics Pact’s Roadmap to 2030 to drive forward action towards creating a circular economy for plastic packaging in India. The Roadmap has been developed to accelerate progress towards four ambitious, time-bound targets for reducing, innovating and re-imagining plastic packaging. The India Plastics Pact’s targets to be achieved by 2030are:
? Define a list of unnecessary or problematic plastic packaging and items and take measures to address them through redesign and innovation
? 100%of plastic packaging to be reusable, recyclable, or compostable
? 50% of plastic packaging to be effectively recycled
? 25%average recycled content across all plastic packaging
With reference to the Biodiversity Heritage Sites (BHS), which of the following statements is/are
correct?
1. They are ecologically fragile ecosystems with high diversity of wild and domesticated species
2. They can be notified or declared by the Central Government only
3. They are declared under the provisions of Environment Protection Act 1986
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? Biodiversity Heritage Site are well-defined areas that are unique, ecologically fragile ecosystems with high diversity of wild and domesticated species, presence of rare and threatened species, and keystone species, and having significant cultural, ethical or aesthetic values.
? As per provision under Section 37(1) of ‘Biological Diversity Act, 2002’, The State Government may, from time to time in consultation with the local bodies, notify in the Official Gazette, areas of biodiversity importance as under this Act. The State Government in consultation with the Central Government may frame rules for the management and conservation of BHS.
? Creation of BHS may not put any restriction on the prevailing practices and usages of the local communities, other than those voluntarily decided by them. The purpose is to enhance the quality of life of the local communities through conservation measures.
? India presently has 36Biodiversity Heritage Sites.
Consider the following statements:
1. National Population Register (NPR) is a database containing of all usual residents of the country
including foreigners
2. Census is legally backed by the Citizenship Act, 1955
3. National Register of Citizens (NRC) for the whole nation has been published only once since
Independence
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? National Population Register (NPR) is a database containing a list of all usual residents of the country. A usual resident for the purposes of NPR is a person who has resided in a place for six months or more and intends to reside there for another six months or more. Its objective is to have a comprehensive identity database of people residing in the country. NPR was first collected in 2010and then updated in 2015.
? NPR is prepared under the provisions of the Citizenship Act 1955and the Citizenship (Registration of Citizens and Issue of National Identity Cards) Rules, 2003. It is mandatory for every “usual resident of India” to register in the NPR.
? National Register of Citizens (NRC) is a register prepared after the conduct of the Census of 1951 in respect of each village, showing the houses or holdings in a serial order and indicating against each house or holding the number and names of persons staying therein. The NRC was published only once in 1951and since then, it has not been updated for the nation until recently. It has been updated in Assam only for now
? According to Citizenship Rules 2003, NPR is the first step towards compilation of a National Register of Citizens (NRC). After a list of residents is created (i.e., NPR), a nationwide NRC could go about verifying the citizens from that list. However, unlike the NRC, the NPR is not a citizenship enumeration drive as it records even a foreigner staying in a locality for more than six months.
? Statement 2>> Incorrect
? Population Census is the total process of collecting, compiling, analyzing and disseminating demographic, economic and social data pertaining, at a specific time, of all persons in a country or a well-defined part of a country. Census is conducted under the provisions of the Census Act, 1948.
The ‘China Plus One’ strategy, sometimes mentioned in news, can be best explained as:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? China Plus One, also known simply as Plus One or C+1, is the business strategy to avoid investing only in China and diversify business into other countries.
? For the last 20 years, western companies have invested in China, drawn in by their low production costs, and enormous domestic consumer markets. Developing from the overconcentration of business interests in China, it may be done for reasons of cost, safety, or long-term stability.
? Zero-COVID policy, supply chain disruption issues, high freight rates and lead times from China –the confluence of all these factors have resulted in a China+1strategy for many global companies.
With reference to Rare Earth Minerals (REM), consider the following statements:
1. REMs are metallic elements that have unique magnetic and electrochemical properties
2. In order to improve domestic production, India has recently banned the imports of REM
3. Mining of Rare Earths are limited to the public sector companies in India
4. India Rare Earth Limited (IREL) functions under the administrative control of the Department of
Atomic Energy
Which of the statements given above is/are corre
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? Rare Earth Metals are a set of seventeen metallic elements that have unique magnetic, luminescent, and electrochemical properties and thus are used in many modern technologies, including consumer electronics, computers and networks, communications, health care, national defense, clean energy technologies etc.
? They are called 'rare earth' because earlier it was difficult to extract them from their oxides forms technologically. They occur in many minerals but typically in low concentrations to be refined in an economical manner.
? Exploration in India has been conducted by the Bureau of Mines and the Department of Atomic Energy. Mining and processing has been performed by some minor private players in the past but is today concentrated in the hands of IREL (India) Limited (formerly Indian Rare Earths Limited), a Public Sector Undertaking under the Department of Atomic Energy.
? Monazite the primary source of rare earth mineral in India. Compounds, duly liberated from radioactivity is available for all including the private sector since 1950. As regards developing rare earth value chain, a Rare Earth Theme Park is being setup which will upscale the scientific principles proven at laboratory to pilot scale and demonstrate the same to aspiring Industries willing to set up commercial operations.
? Though India has 6% of the world’s rare earth reserves, it only produces 1% of global output, and meets most of its requirements of such minerals from China. In 2018-19, for instance, 92%of rare earth metal imports by value and 97%by quantity were sourced from China.
The Fujiwhara effect, sometimes seen in the news, is associated with which of the following
phenomenon?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? The Fujiwhara Effect is any interaction between tropical storms formed around the same time in the same ocean region with their centres or eyes at a distance of less than 1,400 km, with intensity that could vary between a depression (wind speed under 63km per hour) and a super typhoon (wind speed over 209km per hour).
? The interaction could lead to changes in the track and intensity of either or both storm systems. In rare cases, the two systems could merge, especially when they are of similar size and intensity, to form a bigger storm.
Tamil Nadu government has recently given a petition to President for removal of Governor. In this
context, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Governor shall hold office during the pleasure of the President
2. Constitution does not lay down the grounds upon which a Governor may be removed by the
President
3. State Government can impeach a Governor by passing a resolution with two-third majority of total
membership of the House
Select the correct answer using the codes giv
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
The governor is a nominal executive head of the state. He forms an important part of the state executive where he acts as the chief executive head. Central Government nominates the governor for each state. According to the Article 156 of the Indian Constitution, the Governor shall hold office during the pleasure of the President. President can remove the Governor and the grounds upon which he may be removed are not laid down in the constitution. Dismissal of governors without a valid reason is not permitted. However, it is the duty of the President to dismiss a governor whose acts are upheld by courts as unconstitutional and malafide. The term of governor's office is normally 5years, but it can be terminated earlier by: Dismissal by the president on the advice of the council of minister headed by the prime minister of the country Dismissal of governors without a valid reason is not permitted. However, it is the duty of the President to dismiss a governor whose acts are upheld by courts as unconstitutional and malafide. Resignation by the governor
With reference to the India Infrastructure Project Development Fund (IIPDF) Scheme, consider the
following statements:
1. It provides financial support exclusively for the project development expenses of Public Sector
Undertakings (PSUs)
2. It encourages private investment in infrastructure development
3. It aims to provide necessary support to project sponsors in both the Central and State governments
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? Infrastructure Project Development Fund Scheme (IIPDF Scheme) is a scheme for financial support for project development expenses of Public-Private Partnership (PPP) Projects. It is a Central Sector Scheme with total outlay of Rs 150crore for a period of three years from 2022- 23to 2024-25. It is available to the Sponsoring Authorities for PPP projects for meeting the project development costs.
? It is aimed to provide financial support for quality project development activities. The IIPDF will contribute up to 75% of the project development expenses to the Project Sponsoring Authority (PSA) as an interest free loan. The balance 25%will be co-funded by the Sponsoring Authority.
? It aims to encourage private sector participation in the infrastructure sector.
? It will provide necessary support to the PSAs, both in the Central and State Governments, by extending financial assistance in meeting the cost of transaction advisors and consultants engaged in the development of PPP projects.
Consider the following statements:
1. National Bioenergy Programme has been launched by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
2. It provides financial support for setting up Biogas, Bio-CNG and power plants
3. Bio-Urja portal is a single window platform for grant of Central Financial Assistance (CFA) to Waste
to Energy projects
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? Ministry of New and Renewable Energy has notified the National Bioenergy Programme in November 2022. MNRE has continued the National Bioenergy Programme for the period from
FY 2021-22to 2025-26.
? The National Bioenergy Programme will comprise the following sub-schemes:
? Waste to Energy Programme -It is Programme on Energy from Urban, Industrial and Agricultural Wastes /Residues to support the setting up of large Biogas, BioCNG and Power plants. Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency (IREDA) will be the implementing agency for the program.
? Biomass Programme -It is a Scheme to Support Manufacturing of Briquettes & Pellets and Promotion of Biomass (non-bagasse) based cogeneration in Industries to support setting up of pellets and briquettes for use in power generation and non-bagasse based power generation projects.
? Biogas Programme -To support setting up of family and medium size Biogas in rural areas.
? BioUrja portal has been developed as a single window platform to register and submit online applications for grant of Central Financial Assistance (CFA) to Waste to Energy projects, Biomass Briquette/Pellet manufacturing plants and Biomass (non-bagasse) based cogeneration projects.
? Biogas portal provides an overview on biogas related information.
With reference to the District Mineral Foundation (DMF), which of the following statements is not
correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
As per the Mine and Minerals Development Regulation (Amendment) Act, 2015, in every district affected by mining-related operations, the state government shall, by notification, establish a trust as a non-profit body to be called the District Mineral Foundation. Funds from every mining lease holder of will pay a fraction of royalty, not exceeding one-third of the royalty, to the DMF as per rates prescribed by Central Government. This fund will be used for welfare of the people affected in the mining affected areas. The idea behind the contribution is that local mining-affected communities, mostly tribal and among the poorest in the country, also have the right to benefit from natural resources extracted from where they live.
With reference to the Central Counterparty Clearing house (CCP), consider the following
statements:
1. A CCP is an entity that helps facilitate trading in various European derivatives and equities markets
2. A CCP is authorized by the RBI to operate in India under Payment and Settlement Systems Act,
2007
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? A central counterparty clearing house (CCP) is an entity that helps facilitate trading in various European derivatives and equities markets. Typically operated by the major banks in each country, CCPs strive to introduce efficiency and stability into various financial markets.
? It reduces counterparty, operational, settlement, market, legal, and default risk for traders. A CCP acts as a counterparty to both sellers and buyers, collecting money from each, which allows it to guarantee the terms of a trade.
? CCPs perform two main functions as the intermediary in a market transaction:
? clearing and settlement, and
? guarantee the terms of a trade.
? A CCP is authorised by the RBI to operate in India under Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007.
Consider the following statements:
1. Karnataka has the biggest data center in India
2. Maharashtra has a fully underwater data center
3. The primary colocation data center area in India is Mumbai
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
Yotta D1, built at a cost of Rs 5,000 crore, is the country’s biggest and UP’s first data centre. It is spread over an area of 3lakh square feet at the upcoming Data Centre Park in Greater Noida, Uttar Pradesh. Yotta D1 features Internet peering exchanges and direct fiber connectivity to and from global cloud operators, making it extremely useful for global connectivity. Yotta D-1will be the first pillar of North India's 5G revolution. Currently, there are about 138 data centres (DCs) across India with at least 57% of the current IT capacity being in Mumbai & Chennai. The primary colocation data centre area in India is Mumbai with its location facing the west coast making it well connected to the Middle East and Europe due to multiple submarine cables landing there.
In India, the Cri-MAC Portal is used in the context of:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? Crime Multi Agency Centre (Cri-MAC) was launched in 2020 by the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) to share information on crime and criminals 24×7 with various law enforcement agencies and ensure a seamless flow of information among them.
? The application run by the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) aims to help in early detection and prevention of crime incidents across the country.
Which among the following initiatives were launched at the UNFCCC CoP 27?
1. Methane Alert and Response System (MARS)
2. Mangroves Alliance for Climate (MAC)
3. Infrastructure for Resilient Island States (IRIS)
4. International Drought Resilience Alliance (IDRA)
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? Methane Alert and Response System (MARS)–was launched at the 27th Conference of Parties (COP27) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change in Sharm El-Sheikh, Egypt. The data-to-action platform was set up as part of the UN Environment Programme’s (UNEP) International Methane Emissions Observatory (IMEO) strategy to get policy-relevant data into the right hands for emissions mitigation. The system will be the first publicly available global system to connect methane detection to notification processes transparently.
? Mangroves Alliance for Climate (MAC)-During the COP27 climate summit in Sharm El Sheikh, the UAE and Indonesia announced the "Mangrove Alliance for Climate." Its members
include UAE, Indonesia, India, Sri Lanka, Australia, Japan, and Spain. It seeks to educate and spread awareness worldwide on the role of mangroves in curbing global warming and its potential as a solution for climate change.
? Infrastructure for Resilient Island States (IRIS)–India launched Infrastructure for Resilient Island States (IRIS) on side-lines of climate summit CoP 26in Glasgow in 2021. It is the first major initiative by the Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI). IRIS is a specific work programme that seeks to operationalize the CDRI initiative in small island nations.
? International Drought Resilience Alliance (IDRA)-Spain and Senegal led 30 countries and 20 organisations launched the International Drought Resilience Alliance (IDRA) at the COP27 to the UNFCCC at Sharm El-Sheikh. The mission of the alliance is to give political impetus to make the land’s resilience to drought and climate change a reality by 2030. The alliance will help each other to be better prepared for future droughts.
In India, what is the role of the Grid Controller of India Limited (Grid-India)?
1. It is responsible to monitor and ensure round the clock integrated operation of Indian Power System
2. It aims to facilitate sustainable and reliable trans-national exchange of power
3. It is the nodal agency to implement Saubhagya scheme to achieve universal household
electrification in the country
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? India’s National Grid Operator “Power System Operation Corporation Limited (POSOCO)” had recently announced that POSOCO has changed its name to “Grid Controller of India Limited”. The change in name has been made to reflect the critical role of Grid Operators in ensuring integrity, reliability, economy, resilience, and sustainable operation of the Indian Electricity
Grid.
? Grid Controller of India Limited (Grid-India) is a wholly owned central government enterprise that comes under the aegis of the Ministry of Power.
? Its objective is to Ensure Integrated Operation of the Indian Power System to facilitate transfer of electric power within and across the regions and trans-national exchange of power with Reliability, Economy, and Sustainability. It operates the National Load Dispatch Centre (NLDC) and five (5) Regional Load Dispatch Centres (RLDCs).
? Grid-India currently works as the nodal agency for major reforms in the power sector like the implementation and operation of Green Energy Open Access Portal, Renewable Energy Certificate (REC) Mechanism, transmission pricing, short-term open access in transmission, deviation settlement mechanism, Power System Development Fund (PSDF) and others.
? PM Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana -Saubhagya Scheme –aims to achieve Universal household electrification in the country Ministry of Power. Its nodal Agency is the Rural Electrification Corporation Ltd
Consider the following statements in respect of the Men?s FIFA World Cup 2022:
1. The official slogan for this world cup was „United by Emotion?
2. The world cup Official ball „Al Rihla? was named after the book written by Ibn Batuta
3. Argentina has won the world cup maximum number of times compared to others
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? FIFA World Cup is one of the most prestigious tournaments in the world -taking place quadrennially.
? FIFA Official Ball was named Al Rihla (means -‘the journey’) -a reference to a travelogue written by Ibn Battuta, the 14th-century explorer.
? 'Now is All,' says the FIFA World Cup Qatar 2022motto. It represents living your dream, realising your destiny, and owning the moment.
? Brazil is the most successful team in the World Cup, having won five titles. Italy and Germany have four titles each. Current champion Argentina has three titles.
Consider the following pairs:
Region in News - Country
1. Dar Es Salaam - Tanzania
2. Tigray - Ethiopia
3. Sharm al Sheikh - Saudi Arabia
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? Dar Es Salaam–In an effort to strengthen its defence ties with Africa, India recently hosted its first-ever trilateral Navy exercisewith Africa. The first edition of India-Mozambique-Tanzania Trilateral Exercise (IMT TRILAT), a joint maritime exercise among the Indian, Mozambique and Tanzanian navies took place at Dar Es Salaam, Tanzania.
? Tigray region –The director-general of the World Health Organization (WHO), described the Tigray crisis region as the “worst humanitarian disaster on earth”. Ethiopia has been on the brink of a civil war. Prime Minister Abiy Ahmed declared war on the country’s Tigray region earlier in 2020. The Tigray region is ruled by theTigray People’s Liberation Front (TPLF).The war was declared in response to the TPLF’s attack on a federal military base in Tigray.The Ethiopian government team and Tigray forces recently decided to have peace talks in South Africa.
? Sharm al Sheikh -Sharm el-Sheikh, often called just Sharm, is a resort town in Egypt, situated at the southern tip of the Sinai peninsula where the Gulf of Aqaba joins the Red Sea. It is a major tourist centre in Egypt, and also, like Cancun in Mexico, a preferred venue for international conferences.
Consider the following pairs:
Reports : Published by
Logistics
Performance
Index
: World Bank
Trade and
Development
Report
: UNCTAD
World Economic
Outlook
: World
Economic
Forum
Global
Innovation Index
: WIPO
Which of the pairs given above are matched correctly?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? Reports published by World Bank -Ease of Doing Business, World Development Report, Global Economic Prospect (GEP) Report, Remittance Report, Ease of Living Index, India Development Update, Universal Health Coverage Index, The Service Trade Restriction Index, etc.
? Reports by WEF -Global Information Technology Report, Travel and Tourism Competitiveness Report, Global Competitiveness Report, Enabling Trade Report, Global Environment Performance Index, World Power Language Index, Inclusive Development Index, Global Gender Gap Index, etc.
? Reports by UNCTAD -World Investment Report, Trade & Development Report, Least Developed Countries Report, Information Economy Report, Technology and Innovation Report
? Reports by IMF –World Economic Outlook, Global Financial Stability Report
? Global Innovation Index (GII) 2022 rankings released by World Intellectual Property Organisation (WIPO).The index has been a leading reference for measuring an economy’s innovation performance.
Consider the following statements:
1. Operation Olivia to protect Oliver Ridley Turtles is conducted by the Indian Coast Guards
2. Operation Megh Chakra is conducted by the CBI to prevent child sexual abuses
3. Operation Turtshield is initiated by the Wildlife Crime Control Bureau
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
? Operation Megh Chakra is a pan-India drive against the circulation and sharing of Child Sexual Abuse Material (CSAM) conducted by the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is being carried out following the inputs received from Interpol’s Singapore special unit based on the information received from the authorities in New Zealand. It has been alleged that a large number of Indian nationals were involved in the online circulation, downloading and transmission of the CSAM using cloud-based storage.
? Operation Turtshield –The 19th Meeting of the Conference of the Parties (CoP 19) to the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora
(CITES)lauded the result achieved by the country in operations initiated by the Wildlife Crime Control Bureau namely Operation Turtshield, to eliminate poaching and illegal trade of fresh water turtles.
? Operation Olivia -Every year, the Indian Coast Guard’s “Operation Olivia”, initiated in the early 1980s, helps protect Olive Ridley turtles as they congregate along the Odisha coast for breeding and nesting from November to December. It also intercepts unlawful trawling activities.
The “Wuhan declaration”, sometimes mentioned in news, is mentioned in the context of:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
• Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence (GPAI) is an international and multi-stakeholder initiative to guide the responsible development and use of AI, based on human rights, inclusion, diversity, innovation, and economic growth.It aims to bridge the gap between theory and practice on AI by supporting cutting-edge research and applied activities on AI-related priorities.
• India was a founding member of this group in 2020. At present, GPAI has twenty-five member states. Recently, India has been handed over the presidency of Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence (GPAI) for 2022-23 by the outgoing Council Chair, France in its 3rd Annual Summit in Japan
With reference to the Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence (GPAI), consider the following
statements:
1. GPAI aims to support the responsible and human-centric development and use of Artificial
Intelligence (AI)
2. India is not a member of this partnership
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
• Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence (GPAI) is an international and multi-stakeholder initiative to guide the responsible development and use of AI, based on human rights, inclusion, diversity, innovation, and economic growth.It aims to bridge the gap between theory and practice on AI by supporting cutting-edge research and applied activities on AI-related priorities.
• India was a founding member of this group in 2020. At present, GPAI has twenty-five member states. Recently, India has been handed over the presidency of Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence (GPAI) for 2022-23 by the outgoing Council Chair, France in its 3rd Annual Summit in Japan
Consider the following statements regarding the „In our LiFEtime Campaign?:
1. This initiative was launched at the UNFCCC CoP-27 in 2022
2. It was launched by Indian government jointly with UNDP
3. It aims to encourage youth to become the key stakeholders in the sustainable lifestyle movement
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
• The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change has launched the “In Our LiFEtime” campaign at a side event of the COP 27 in Egypt. It aims to encourage youth between the ages of 18 to 23 years to become message bearers of sustainable lifestyles. It envisions to recognize youth from around the world taking climate action initiatives that resonate with the concept of LiFE
• It was launched jointly by National Museum of Natural History (NMNH), under the Ministry of Environment Forest and Climate Change andUnited Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
•The campaign gives a global call for ideas from youth across the world who are passionate about living environmentally conscious lives. It encourages youth to submit their climate actions that contribute to lifestyles for the environment within their capacity. These practices should be sustainable and scalable; hence the practices would serve as good practices that can be shared globally.
With reference to “Lab Grown Diamonds” (LGD), consider the following statements:
1. LGDs are created inside a lab using cutting-edge technology that replicates the natural diamond
growing process
2. These diamonds are cheaper, greener and environmentally sustainable
3. India is a net importer of LGDs
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
• A lab-created diamond is “grown” inside a lab using cutting-edge technology that replicates the natural diamond growing process. The result is a man-made diamond that is chemically, physically, and optically the same as those grown beneath the Earth's surface.
• Lab-made diamonds are developed from a carbon seed placed in a microwave chamber and superheated into a glowing plasma ball. The process creates particles that crystallize into diamonds in weeks. This tech-based manufacturing directly cuts down the capital and labor- intensive factors of the mined diamond chain and so lab-grown diamonds cost 30-40 percent cheaper than mined despite being 100percent diamonds.
•Lab created diamonds are inherently and significantly less detrimental to the environment as it takes considerably less energy to grow a diamond in a lab than it does to dig it out of the ground. Lab-grown diamonds are the more sustainable option.
• There are two types of lab-grown diamonds --CVD and HPHT. India particularly specializes and leads in the chemical vapour decomposition (CVD) technology that is certified as the purest type of diamonds.
Consider the following statements:
1. Cyclone Mandous originated in the Arabian Sea
2. The air circulation within this cyclone was in clockwise direction
3. Its name was suggested by the United Arab Emirates
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
• Cyclones are rapid inward air circulation around a low-pressure area. The air circulates in an anticlockwise direction in the Northern hemisphere and clockwisein the Southern hemisphere.
•Cyclone Mandous, which emerged from the Bay of Bengal, made landfall in Mamallapuramon December 9 2022, resulting in heavy rainfall and squally winds in parts of coastal Tamil Nadu.The states of Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and the Union Territory of Puducherry were mainly affected by Cyclone Mandous. Ithas been categorised as a ‘Severe Cyclonic Storm’.
• Statement 3>> Correct
• In 2000, a group of nations called WMO/ESCAP (World Meteorological Organisation/United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific) decided to name cyclones. It comprises of Bangladesh, India, theMaldives, Myanmar, Oman, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, Thailand, Iran, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, United Arab Emirates and Yemen, decided to start naming cyclones in the region.After each country sent in suggestions, the WMO/ESCAP Panel on Tropical Cyclones (PTC) finalized the list.
• ‘Mandous’ was a name submitted by WMO member United Arab Emirates and is pronounced as ‘Man-Dous’. It means ‘treasure box’ in Arabic.
With reference to the National Bamboo Mission, which of the statements given below is/are
correct?
1. Its objective is to increase the area under bamboo plantation in non-forest lands
2. It aims is to upgrade skills of traditional bamboo craftsmen
3. Bamboo is categorized as a „minor forest produce?
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
• National Bamboo Mission (NBM) is being implemented as a sub-scheme of Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture (MIDH). The Department of Agriculture & Cooperation (DAC), Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare is the nodal agency for its implementation. It is 100% Centrally Sponsored Scheme.
• The Mission envisages promoting holistic growth of the bamboo sector by adopting the area- based, regionally differentiated strategy and to increase the area under bamboo cultivation and marketing.
• Under the Mission, steps have been taken to increase the availability of quality planting material by supporting the setting up of new nurseries and strengthening existing ones. The National Bamboo Mission has set up 79bamboo markets.
• its objectives are:
• To increase the area under bamboo plantation in non-forest Government and private lands to supplement farm income and contribute towards resilience to climate change.
• Connecting farmers to markets so as to enable farmer producers to get a ready market for the bamboo grown and to increase the supply of appropriate raw material to the domestic industry.
• It also endeavors to upgrade skills of traditional bamboo craftsmen as per the requirement of contemporary markets with a tie-up with enterprise sand premier institutes.
The term “end-to-end encryption” is talked about in the context of:
Answer Given: SKIPPED
Explanation:
• End-to-end encryption is a communication process that encrypts data being shared between two devices. It prevents third parties like cloud service providers, internet service providers (ISPs) and cyber criminals from accessing data while it is being transferred.
• The process of end-to-end encryption uses an algorithm that transforms standard text into an unreadable format. This format can only be unscrambled and read by those with the decryption keys, which are only stored on endpoints and not with any third parties including companies providing the service.